HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with acute kidney injury has an elevated creatinine level. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer diuretics as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for dialysis.
- C. Restrict the client’s fluid intake.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare the client for dialysis. Clients with acute kidney injury and elevated creatinine may require dialysis to support kidney function and remove waste products from the blood. Preparing for dialysis ensures timely intervention in preventing further complications. Administering diuretics (Choice A) may worsen the client's condition by further compromising kidney function. Restricting fluid intake (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority over preparing for dialysis. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, but the immediate priority is to prepare for dialysis to address the acute kidney injury and elevated creatinine level.
2. A client with Type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky and lightheaded. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 60 mg/dL. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Give the client a glucagon injection
- B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
- C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
- D. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. The first step in treating hypoglycemia is to quickly raise the client's blood sugar level. Fast-acting carbohydrates like glucose tablets or juice are essential for this purpose. Giving a glucagon injection is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take anything by mouth. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for immediate treatment of hypoglycemia. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes is important after administering the fast-acting carbohydrate to ensure that the blood sugar has returned to a safe level.
3. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?
- A. Diminished bowel sounds
- B. Loss of appetite
- C. A cold, pale lower leg
- D. Tachypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is cause for the most concern as it could indicate compromised blood circulation, potentially leading to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea are not directly related to the client's condition in atrial fibrillation and the heart rate discrepancy.
4. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2-year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to
- A. Administer the medication in 2 separate injections
- B. Give the medication in the dorsal gluteal site
- C. Call to get a smaller volume ordered
- D. Check with the pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Injections over 1 mL should be split into two separate injections for young children. This helps in preventing discomfort, ensuring proper absorption, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Giving the medication in one injection of 2.0 ml might be too much for a 2-year-old child. Choices B and D are incorrect because the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential injury, and changing the form of medication might not be necessary if the volume can be adjusted. Choice C is unnecessary as splitting the dose into two injections is the appropriate action.
5. A client is experiencing angina at rest. Which statement indicates a good understanding of the care required?
- A. I will notify the nurse if my chest pain is not relieved in 30 minutes.
- B. I will use nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses.
- C. I will avoid physical activity until the pain subsides completely.
- D. I will take nitroglycerin 30 minutes before any physical activity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses, is the appropriate management for angina at rest. This helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Choice A is incorrect because chest pain that persists at rest should be addressed immediately, not waiting for 30 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding physical activity is not a recommended approach during an angina episode. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be used during chest pain episodes, not as a preventive measure before physical activity.
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