HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with acute kidney injury has an elevated creatinine level. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer diuretics as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for dialysis.
- C. Restrict the client’s fluid intake.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare the client for dialysis. Clients with acute kidney injury and elevated creatinine may require dialysis to support kidney function and remove waste products from the blood. Preparing for dialysis ensures timely intervention in preventing further complications. Administering diuretics (Choice A) may worsen the client's condition by further compromising kidney function. Restricting fluid intake (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority over preparing for dialysis. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, but the immediate priority is to prepare for dialysis to address the acute kidney injury and elevated creatinine level.
2. A client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin. The nurse is aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because hypokalemia in combination with this medication ____________.
- A. Can predispose to dysrhythmias
- B. May lead to oliguria
- C. May cause irritability and anxiety
- D. Sometimes alters consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Can predispose to dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia combined with digoxin increases the risk of dysrhythmias due to the potentiation of digoxin's effects on cardiac conduction. Choice B, May lead to oliguria, is incorrect because hypokalemia is not typically associated with oliguria. Choice C, May cause irritability and anxiety, is incorrect as these symptoms are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Choice D, Sometimes alters consciousness, is incorrect as altered consciousness is not a typical effect of hypokalemia combined with digoxin.
3. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?
- A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
- B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
- C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
- D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.
4. A client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions are most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan?
- A. Teach signs of infection
- B. Teach tracheal suctioning techniques
- C. Educate on humidifying air
- D. Discuss the use of a speaking valve
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach tracheal suctioning techniques. Tracheal suctioning is crucial for maintaining a clear airway in clients with a tracheostomy. Without proper suctioning, secretions can accumulate and cause airway obstruction or respiratory infections. Educating the client on how to perform suctioning safely is a priority for discharge planning. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of tracheostomy care, but teaching tracheal suctioning techniques takes precedence due to its direct impact on airway patency and preventing complications.
5. An older adult client with heart failure (HF) and hypertension (HTN) is receiving atenolol, furosemide, and enalapril. Which assessments are essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the medications?
- A. Bowel sounds and daily weight.
- B. Daily weight and blood pressure.
- C. Heart sounds and range of motion.
- D. Monitor for evidence of hypokalemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight and blood pressure is crucial to assess the effectiveness of diuretics (furosemide) and antihypertensives (atenolol, enalapril) in managing heart failure and hypertension. Changes in weight indicate fluid status, while blood pressure readings reflect the control of hypertension. Assessing bowel sounds and range of motion are important but not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of these specific medications in this scenario. Monitoring for hypokalemia is important due to furosemide's potential side effect, but it is not the primary assessment to evaluate medication effectiveness.
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