the nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication which interv
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.

2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder has been referred to a local boarding home for consideration for placement. The social worker telephoned the hospital unit for information about the client's mental status and adjustment. The appropriate response of the nurse should be which of these statements?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I need to get the client's written consent before I release any information to you." In this scenario, the nurse must obtain the client's written consent before disclosing any information to the social worker. This process ensures compliance with privacy laws like HIPAA, which are designed to protect client confidentiality. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the need for consent. Choice B is incorrect as it is unprofessional and does not focus on obtaining consent. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests information can be shared without consent, which goes against privacy laws.

3. A nurse receives a report on a client who is four hours post-total abdominal hysterectomy. The previous nurse reported that it was necessary to change the client's perineal pad hourly and that it is again saturated. The previous nurse also reports that the client's urinary output has decreased. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Saturation of the perineal pad after a hysterectomy suggests excessive vaginal bleeding, which must be addressed immediately. Assessing for vaginal bleeding is the priority in this situation as it can lead to hypovolemic shock. Measuring urinary output, assessing for weakness or dizziness, and increasing IV fluids are important interventions but checking for vaginal bleeding takes precedence due to the risk of hemorrhage post-hysterectomy.

4. A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client with congestive heart failure (CHF). Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit sodium intake to reduce fluid retention. Limiting sodium intake is crucial for managing congestive heart failure (CHF) as it helps reduce fluid retention. Excess fluid retention can worsen CHF by increasing the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect because while protein is essential for overall health, it is not directly related to managing CHF. Choice C is incorrect because potassium, although important, is not the primary focus in managing CHF. Choice D is incorrect because increasing fluid intake can exacerbate fluid retention in CHF patients.

5. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged on isoniazid and rifampin. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use a disposable mask when in contact with others. TB is highly contagious, and wearing a mask can help prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A is important but not the priority as using a mask directly impacts public health. Choice B is related to a potential side effect of isoniazid, peripheral neuropathy, but immediate healthcare provider notification is not required. Choice D is relevant due to the potential hepatotoxicity of isoniazid and rifampin, but it is not the priority instruction in this scenario.

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