HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
- B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
- C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
- D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.
2. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's serum potassium level is 6.2 mEq/L?
- A. Losartan
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Metoprolol
- D. Furosemide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia. With potassium levels already elevated at 6.2 mEq/L, withholding Spironolactone is essential to prevent further increase in potassium levels, which could result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Losartan (Choice A) is an angiotensin receptor blocker and does not directly affect potassium levels. Metoprolol (Choice C) is a beta-blocker and also does not impact potassium levels significantly. Furosemide (Choice D) is a loop diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so it would not be the medication to withhold in this case.
3. A client undergoing chemotherapy reports extreme fatigue. What should the nurse recommend to manage this symptom?
- A. Increase the dose of chemotherapy.
- B. Rest when needed and maintain a balanced diet.
- C. Perform light physical activity to reduce fatigue.
- D. Consider delaying the chemotherapy treatment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for managing chemotherapy-induced fatigue is to advise the client to rest when needed and maintain a balanced diet. Increasing the dose of chemotherapy (Choice A) would exacerbate the fatigue and other side effects. While light physical activity (Choice C) can be beneficial, extreme fatigue may require more rest initially. Delaying chemotherapy treatment (Choice D) should only be considered after consultation with the healthcare provider, as timely treatment is usually crucial in cancer care.
4. The nurse leading a medical-surgical unit care team assigns client care to a PN and a UAP. Which task should the nurse delegate to the UAP?
- A. Assess a client's pain level post-surgery
- B. Turn and reposition a client with a total hip replacement
- C. Administer a dose of insulin per sliding scale
- D. Change a postoperative dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Turning and repositioning a client is within the scope of practice of a UAP. This task helps prevent pressure ulcers and assists in maintaining the client's comfort and mobility. Assessing pain level post-surgery requires clinical judgment and interpretation, making it appropriate for a PN or RN. Administering medication like insulin involves critical thinking and potential adjustments based on the client's condition, which is the responsibility of a licensed nurse. Changing postoperative dressings involves wound assessment, infection control, and knowledge of aseptic techniques, tasks that fall under the purview of a PN or RN.
5. The psychiatric nurse is caring for clients in an adolescent unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. A 17-year-old client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hallways
- B. An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior who is being yelled at by other clients
- C. A 16-year-old client with depression who refuses to eat meals
- D. A 15-year-old client with anxiety who is quietly reading in a corner
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by peers may escalate the situation, potentially leading to violence or self-harm. Addressing the situation quickly helps prevent harm and de-escalates the conflict. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate risks that require urgent intervention compared to the potential danger of a conflict escalating to violence with the client exhibiting antisocial behavior.
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