Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
• B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
• C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
• D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.

2. A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Monitor the client's urinary output hourly.
• B. Apply cool, moist dressings to the burned areas.
• C. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort.
• D. Administer IV fluids to prevent hypovolemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.

3. A client has been receiving hydromorphone every six hours for four days. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Increase the dosage of the medication.
• B. Auscultate bowel sounds.
• C. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
• D. Check the client's respiratory rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hydromorphone can cause constipation, a common side effect of opioids. Therefore, it is crucial to auscultate bowel sounds to monitor for signs of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are important but not the priority in this scenario as constipation is a common issue with opioid use. Increasing the dosage of the medication (choice A) is not appropriate without assessing the client's bowel function first.

4. The nurse is developing an educational program for older clients discharged with new antihypertensive medications. The nurse should ensure that the education materials include which characteristics?

• A. Uses pictures to help illustrate complex ideas
• B. Contains a list with definitions of unfamiliar terms
• C. Uses common words with few syllables
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' When developing educational materials for older clients with new antihypertensive medications, it is essential to include characteristics such as using pictures to illustrate complex ideas, providing a list with definitions of unfamiliar terms, and using common words with few syllables. These features help enhance understanding and medication adherence, especially for older adults who may have challenges with health literacy. Choices A, B, and C collectively address the need for simplicity, visual support, and clarification of terms in educational materials, making them crucial for effective patient education.

5. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only.
• B. Offer oral rehydration solution every 2 hours.
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
• D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.

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