HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
- B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
- C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
- D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.
2. A client presses the call bell and requests pain medication for a severe headache. To assess the quality of the client's pain, which approach should the nurse use?
- A. Use the Wong-Baker Faces pain rating scale
- B. Assess vital signs to gauge pain severity
- C. Ask the client to describe the pain
- D. Offer a 1-10 pain scale
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Asking the client to describe the pain is the most appropriate approach to assess the quality of pain. It provides valuable qualitative information that aids in understanding the nature, cause, and potential management strategies for the headache. While pain rating scales like the Wong-Baker Faces scale and using vital signs can help quantify pain severity, they do not offer specific descriptive details that can give insights into the type and characteristics of the pain experienced by the client.
3. A client is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma management. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client regarding the use of this medication?
- A. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler
- B. Hold your breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication
- C. Use the inhaler during an acute asthma attack
- D. Take the medication only when symptoms occur
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma management is to rinse the mouth after using the inhaler. This helps prevent oral thrush, a common side effect of corticosteroid inhalers. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) is not necessary for corticosteroid inhalers. Using the inhaler during an acute asthma attack (Choice C) is not the purpose of corticosteroids, which are used for long-term asthma management. Taking the medication only when symptoms occur (Choice D) is not correct as corticosteroids are typically used regularly to control asthma symptoms.
4. A client with chronic liver disease is prescribed lactulose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Bilirubin level
- B. Serum ammonia level
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Albumin level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum ammonia level. Lactulose is used to lower serum ammonia levels in clients with chronic liver disease, particularly in cases of hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of lactulose in managing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the action or evaluation of lactulose in chronic liver disease.
5. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops a fever. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer an antipyretic as prescribed.
- B. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Slow the rate of the transfusion.
- D. Continue the transfusion and reassess in 15 minutes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action when a client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever is to stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial to prevent further reactions and ensure prompt intervention. Administering an antipyretic (Choice A) may mask symptoms and delay appropriate treatment. Slowing the rate of the transfusion (Choice C) might not address the underlying cause of the fever. Continuing the transfusion and reassessing in 15 minutes (Choice D) could worsen the client's condition if there is a severe reaction occurring.
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