HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
- B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
- C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
- D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.
2. A client with peripheral vascular disease reports leg pain while walking. What intervention is most effective for the nurse to recommend?
- A. Recommend elevating the legs above the heart.
- B. Encourage the client to increase walking distance gradually.
- C. Encourage the client to avoid sitting or standing for long periods.
- D. Instruct the client to use warm compresses for pain relief.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to increase walking distance gradually. This intervention is effective because gradual increases in walking distance promote circulation, improve oxygen delivery to tissues, and help reduce leg pain caused by peripheral vascular disease. Elevating the legs above the heart (Choice A) may be beneficial in other conditions like venous insufficiency but not specifically for peripheral vascular disease. Encouraging the client to avoid sitting or standing for long periods (Choice C) can help prevent blood pooling but does not directly address the walking-induced leg pain. Instructing the client to use warm compresses for pain relief (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying circulation issues associated with peripheral vascular disease.
3. The nurse is planning an immunization campaign targeting the children of migrant farm workers in the community. Which data should the nurse review before exploring solution options when developing this program plan?
- A. uncertain risks
- B. potential outcomes
- C. priority of solutions
- D. target population data
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct. Before designing an immunization campaign for the children of migrant farm workers, the nurse should review target population data. This includes understanding the specific demographics, health needs, and challenges faced by this population to create a tailored and effective program. Reviewing uncertain risks (choice A) may not provide actionable insights for program development. Considering potential outcomes (choice B) is important but comes after understanding the target population. Evaluating the priority of solutions (choice C) is premature without knowing the specific characteristics and needs of the target population.
4. The surgical procedure done in Bartholin's abscess is called:
- A. Hysterectomy
- B. Oophorectomy
- C. Marsupialization
- D. Salpingectomy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Marsupialization. Marsupialization is the surgical procedure specifically performed for Bartholin's abscess. This procedure involves creating a new duct for the Bartholin's gland to prevent future abscess formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hysterectomy involves the removal of the uterus, oophorectomy involves the removal of the ovaries, and salpingectomy involves the removal of the fallopian tubes, none of which are the appropriate procedures for treating a Bartholin's abscess.
5. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Serum sodium level
- C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
- D. Serum osmolarity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Serum osmolarity is the most important laboratory test for confirming hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia and dehydration without ketoacidosis. Elevated serum osmolarity indicates increased solute concentration in the blood, which is a hallmark of HHNS. Serum potassium level (Choice A) is important in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis rather than HHNS. Serum sodium level (Choice B) may be affected in HHNS but is not the primary test for confirming the disorder. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values (Choice C) are more useful in assessing acid-base status, which is not the primary concern in HHNS.