a client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day in assessing adverse effects of the medication which serum laboratory value is mo
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.

2. A 17-year-old adolescent reports flu-like symptoms and is brought to the emergency room. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place a mask on the client. This intervention is crucial in preventing the spread of infections like the flu, especially in a healthcare setting where the risk of transmission is high. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority in this situation. Obtaining a chest X-ray (Choice C) and determining the client's blood pressure (Choice D) are not the immediate interventions needed for a 17-year-old reporting flu-like symptoms.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid alcohol consumption while on warfarin.' Alcohol can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, so it should be avoided. Choice A is incorrect as leafy green vegetables contain vitamin K, which can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B is important but not directly related to alcohol consumption. Choice C is a general instruction for medication adherence but not specifically related to the interaction with alcohol.

4. A client is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma management. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client regarding the use of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma management is to rinse the mouth after using the inhaler. This helps prevent oral thrush, a common side effect of corticosteroid inhalers. Holding the breath for 5 seconds after inhaling the medication (Choice B) is not necessary for corticosteroid inhalers. Using the inhaler during an acute asthma attack (Choice C) is not the purpose of corticosteroids, which are used for long-term asthma management. Taking the medication only when symptoms occur (Choice D) is not correct as corticosteroids are typically used regularly to control asthma symptoms.

5. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.

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