a client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day in assessing adverse effects of the medication which serum laboratory value is mo
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.

2. What is the expected outcome of prescribing a proton pump inhibitor to a client with a peptic ulcer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduce gastric acid secretion. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) work by reducing gastric acid secretion, which helps prevent further irritation of the gastric mucosa and allows ulcers to heal. While promoting healing of the gastric mucosa (Choice A) is an indirect outcome of reducing gastric acid secretion, the primary mechanism of PPIs is to lower acid levels. Choice B, neutralizing the effects of stomach acid, is typically associated with antacids, not PPIs. Inhibiting the growth of Helicobacter pylori (Choice C) is usually achieved with antibiotics, not PPIs.

3. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and needs health insurance. To which agency should the employee health nurse refer her?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medicare. Medicare is the federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older, so it is the most suitable option for the 66-year-old woman retiring. Medicaid (choice A) is a state and federally funded program for low-income individuals and families, not specifically for retirees. COBRA (choice C) allows employees to continue their employer-sponsored health insurance for a limited time after leaving employment. Private insurance (choice D) refers to health insurance plans purchased directly from private insurance companies.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.

5. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

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