HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Hemoglobin level
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Prothrombin time (PT)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.
2. A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the protein level in urine
- B. Have the client turn to the left side
- C. Take the temperature
- D. Monitor the urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of preeclampsia with increasing blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to have the client turn to the left side. This position helps improve blood flow to the placenta and fetus, reducing the risk of complications. Checking the protein level in urine (Choice A) is important for assessing preeclampsia but not the immediate priority when blood pressure is increasing. Taking the temperature (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing increased blood pressure in preeclampsia. Monitoring urine output (Choice D) is essential but not the first action to take when blood pressure is rising.
3. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?
- A. Elevated HDL cholesterol
- B. Low LDL cholesterol
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Low triglyceride levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.
4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Avoid taking folic acid supplements.
- B. Report any signs of infection immediately.
- C. Take the medication with a full meal.
- D. Limit fluid intake while on this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan when taking methotrexate is to report any signs of infection immediately. Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. It is important for the client to promptly report any signs of infection to receive timely medical intervention. Choice A is incorrect because folic acid supplements are often recommended to reduce side effects of methotrexate. Choice C is incorrect as methotrexate is usually taken on an empty stomach unless the client experiences gastrointestinal upset. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit fluid intake while on methotrexate; in fact, maintaining adequate fluid intake is important to prevent complications such as kidney damage.
5. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?
- A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
- B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
- C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
- D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.