a client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day in assessing adverse effects of the medication which serum laboratory value is mo
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is receiving 30 mg of enoxaparin subcutaneously twice a day. In assessing adverse effects of the medication, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Platelet count. Enoxaparin can cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), making it crucial to monitor the platelet count for signs of thrombocytopenia. Monitoring the platelet count helps in early detection of this serious adverse effect. Choices A, C, and D are less relevant in this context. Hemoglobin level checks are more indicative of bleeding issues rather than thrombocytopenia caused by enoxaparin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and prothrombin time (PT) are less impacted by enoxaparin and are not typically used to monitor for HIT.

2. A client is admitted with a large pleural effusion. Which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct procedure for a client with a large pleural effusion is thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove fluid from the pleural space, which can help relieve symptoms associated with pleural effusion. Choice B (Endotracheal intubation) is incorrect as it is a procedure to secure the airway by placing a tube into the trachea. Choice C (Chest tube insertion) is incorrect as it is typically done to drain air or fluid from the pleural space over a longer period. Choice D (Bronchoscopy) is incorrect as it is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not specifically for pleural effusion removal.

3. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and further complications. A productive cough with yellow sputum is common in pneumonia but may not require immediate intervention unless it worsens or is associated with other concerning symptoms. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within the normal range, indicating adequate ventilation. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is also within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention unless it is accompanied by other abnormal findings.

4. The nurse is conducting diet teaching for a client diagnosed with hypertension. Which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fresh or frozen vegetables without sauce. These foods are low in sodium, which is crucial for managing hypertension. Pickled olives (choice A) and canned soup (choice B) are high in sodium, which can exacerbate hypertension. While fruits without sauce (choice D) are generally healthy, emphasizing vegetables is more beneficial for hypertension due to their lower sodium content.

5. After a spider bite on the lower extremity, a client is admitted to treat an infection that is spreading up the leg. Which admission assessment findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: All of the above findings should be reported to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and treatment. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin indicate regional lymphatic involvement, a core body temperature of 100.5°F suggests a mild fever response, and an elevated white blood cell count indicates an ongoing infection process. These findings collectively point towards the spread of infection and require immediate attention to prevent further complications.

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