HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Request an order for IV epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock.
- B. Slow the infusion to 10 mg/min and observe the patient closely.
- C. Stop the infusion and obtain an order for a BUN and serum creatinine.
- D. Suspect Stevens-Johnson syndrome and notify the provider immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man” syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.
2. A client is tested for HIV with the use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and the test result is positive. The nurse should tell the client that:
- A. HIV infection has been confirmed
- B. The client probably has an opportunistic infection
- C. The test will need to be confirmed with the use of a Western blot
- D. A positive test is a normal result and does not mean that the client is infected with HIV
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When an ELISA test for HIV is positive, it is essential to confirm the result with a Western blot. The Western blot is the confirmatory test for HIV. Choice A is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does not confirm HIV infection. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes a different diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does indicate potential HIV infection and requires confirmation.
3. The healthcare provider prescribes diagnostic tests for a client with pneumonia identified on a chest X-ray. Which diagnostic test should the nurse review for implementation to guide the most therapeutic treatment of pneumonia?
- A. Sputum culture and sensitivity
- B. Blood cultures
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABG)
- D. Computerized tomography (CT) of the chest
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Sputum culture and sensitivity is the most appropriate diagnostic test for pneumonia as it helps in identifying the causative organism, which is crucial for guiding the selection of the most effective antibiotic therapy. Blood cultures (choice B) are more useful in identifying systemic infections rather than pneumonia specifically. Arterial blood gases (ABG) (choice C) are helpful in assessing oxygenation but do not directly aid in identifying the causative organism. Computerized tomography (CT) of the chest (choice D) is useful for evaluating structural abnormalities in the lungs but is not the initial test of choice for diagnosing pneumonia.
4. A client with chronic heart failure is being taught by a nurse about the importance of daily weights. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Weigh yourself at the same time every day.
- B. Use the same scale for weighing each time.
- C. Record your weight in a journal or log.
- D. Report any weight gain of more than 2 to 3 pounds in a day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with chronic heart failure is to report any weight gain of more than 2 to 3 pounds in a day. This weight gain may indicate fluid retention, which is a critical sign of worsening heart failure. Weighing at the same time every day and using the same scale for consistency are good practices, but the crucial action is to promptly report significant weight gain, as stated in option D. Recording the weight in a journal or log can be helpful for tracking trends, but immediate reporting of weight gain is essential for timely intervention in heart failure management. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate instruction for this client.
5. A client has made an appointment for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that:
- A. The test cannot be performed while the client is menstruating
- B. Vaginal douching is required at least 24 hours before the test
- C. Spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test
- D. The test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. Menstrual blood may interfere with the test results. Choice B is incorrect as vaginal douching should be avoided for at least 24 hours before the test to prevent altering the cervical cells. Choice C is incorrect as there is no restriction on spicy foods before a Pap smear. Choice D is incorrect as some women may experience mild discomfort during the test, although it is generally well-tolerated.
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