HESI RN
RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023
1. After teaching a client with renal cancer who is prescribed temsirolimus (Torisel), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take this medication with food and plenty of water.
- B. I shall keep my appointment at the infusion center each week.
- C. I’ll limit my intake of green leafy vegetables while on this medication.
- D. I must not take this medication if I have an infection or am feeling ill.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Temsirolimus, also known as Torisel, is administered as a weekly intravenous infusion. This medication blocks protein needed for cell division, inhibiting cell cycle progression. It is not taken orally, so there is no need to take it with food or water. Keeping the weekly infusion center appointment is crucial for the client to receive the prescribed treatment effectively. Choice A is incorrect as temsirolimus is not taken with food or water. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to limit the intake of green leafy vegetables while on this medication. Choice D is incorrect as having an infection or feeling ill does not prohibit the use of temsirolimus.
2. The patient is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which potential electrolyte imbalance will the nurse monitor for in this patient?
- A. Hypermagnesemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the effects of digoxin, leading to digoxin toxicity. Thiazides can also cause hypercalcemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. Hypernatremia and hypocalcemia are not the primary electrolyte imbalances to monitor for in this scenario.
3. A healthcare professional has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional take during this procedure?
- A. Keeping the specimen chilled
- B. Saving the first urine specimen collected at the start time
- C. Discarding the last voided specimen at the end of the collection time
- D. Asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time. During a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided urine is discarded to ensure the test starts with an empty bladder. The specimen should be kept chilled, not at room temperature, to prevent bacterial growth. The last voided specimen is not discarded because it contributes to the total volume collected, so choice C is incorrect. Discarding the specimen and noting the start time is essential for accurate results in a timed quantitative determination like a 24-hour urine collection.
4. A client is recovering after a nephrostomy tube was placed 6 hours ago. The nurse notes drainage in the tube has decreased from 40 mL/hr to 12 mL over the last hour. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Document the finding in the client’s record.
- B. Evaluate the tube as working in the hand-off report.
- C. Clamp the tube in preparation for removing it.
- D. Assess the client’s abdomen and vital signs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client’s abdomen and vital signs. The nephrostomy tube should have a consistent amount of drainage, and a decrease may indicate obstruction. Before notifying the provider, the nurse must assess the client for pain, distention, and changes in vital signs. This assessment is crucial to gather essential information to report accurately. Documenting the finding without further assessment may delay necessary intervention. Evaluating the tube as working in the hand-off report or clamping the tube prematurely are not appropriate actions and could lead to complications if there is an obstruction.
5. A nurse is assessing the chest tube drainage system of a postoperative client who has undergone a right upper lobectomy. The closed drainage system contains 300 mL of bloody drainage, and the nurse notes intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber. One hour after the initial assessment, the nurse notes that the bubbling in the water seal chamber is now constant, and the client appears dyspneic. On the basis of these findings, the nurse should first assess:
- A. The client’s vital signs
- B. The amount of drainage
- C. The client’s lung sounds
- D. The chest tube connections
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client’s dyspnea is most likely related to an air leak caused by a loose connection in the chest tube system. Checking the chest tube connections should be the initial action because correcting an air leak can quickly resolve the client's symptoms. If a leak is found and corrected, the dyspnea should improve. Assessing the client’s vital signs (Option A) is important, but addressing the potential cause of dyspnea takes precedence. Monitoring the amount of drainage (Option B) is necessary for assessing the client's overall condition, but in this case, the dyspnea is likely due to an air leak. Checking the client’s lung sounds (Option C) is essential for respiratory assessment, but addressing the air leak should be the immediate priority to ensure adequate lung expansion and oxygenation.
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