Nursing Elites

1. A patient’s serum osmolality is 305 mOsm/kg. Which term describes this patient’s body fluid osmolality?

• A. Iso-osmolar
• B. Hypo-osmolar
• C. Hyperosmolar
• D. Isotonic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct term to describe a patient with a serum osmolality of 305 mOsm/kg is 'hyperosmolar.' Normal osmolality ranges from 280 to 300 mOsm/kg. A patient with an osmolality above this range is considered hyperosmolar. Choice A ('Iso-osmolar') implies an equal osmolality, which is not the case in this scenario. Choice B ('Hypo-osmolar') suggests a lower osmolality, which is incorrect based on the provided serum osmolality value. Choice D ('Isotonic') refers to a solution having the same osmolality as another solution, not describing the specific scenario of this patient being above the normal range.

2. A client has just been scheduled for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). What should the nurse tell the client about the procedure? Select all that apply.

• A. That informed consent is required
• B. That the test takes about 1 hour to complete
• C. That premedication for sedation may be necessary
• D. That food and fluids will be withheld before the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the ERCP procedure takes about 1 hour to complete. Informed consent is required before the procedure. Premedication for sedation may be necessary as sedation is commonly used during ERCP to keep the client comfortable. Food and fluids are withheld before the procedure to prevent aspiration and ensure a clear view during the procedure. Position changes may be necessary to facilitate the passage of the tube.

3. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?

• A. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him.
• B. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner.
• C. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time.
• D. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.

4. In a client with heart failure presenting bilateral +4 edema of the right ankle extending up to midcalf while sitting with legs dependent, what is the priority goal?

• A. Decrease venous congestion.
• B. Maintain normal respirations.
• C. Maintain body temperature.
• D. Prevent injury to lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority goal in this scenario is to decrease venous congestion. By elevating the legs above the heart level, venous return is improved, reducing congestion in the lower extremities. This intervention helps decrease swelling and prevents complications such as impaired tissue perfusion. Maintaining normal respirations and body temperature are important aspects of care but are secondary to addressing the immediate issue of venous congestion. Preventing injury to lower extremities is also essential but takes precedence after managing the venous congestion to prevent further complications.

5. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of a cephalosporin medication to a patient who has been receiving the antibiotic for 2 weeks. The nurse notes ulcers on the patient’s tongue and buccal mucosa. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Hold the drug and notify the provider.
• B. Obtain an order to culture the oral lesions.
• C. Gather emergency equipment to prepare for anaphylaxis.
• D. Report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin to the physician as the patient's symptoms may indicate a superinfection that requires treatment. Holding the drug is not necessary unless directed by the provider. Culturing the lesions is not indicated for this situation. There is no evidence to suggest impending anaphylaxis based on the patient's symptoms.

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