Nursing Elites

1. A patient’s serum osmolality is 305 mOsm/kg. Which term describes this patient’s body fluid osmolality?

• A. Iso-osmolar
• B. Hypo-osmolar
• C. Hyperosmolar
• D. Isotonic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct term to describe a patient with a serum osmolality of 305 mOsm/kg is 'hyperosmolar.' Normal osmolality ranges from 280 to 300 mOsm/kg. A patient with an osmolality above this range is considered hyperosmolar. Choice A ('Iso-osmolar') implies an equal osmolality, which is not the case in this scenario. Choice B ('Hypo-osmolar') suggests a lower osmolality, which is incorrect based on the provided serum osmolality value. Choice D ('Isotonic') refers to a solution having the same osmolality as another solution, not describing the specific scenario of this patient being above the normal range.

2. Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-menopausal female client?

• A. Breast self-examinations are not necessary if annual mammograms are obtained.
• B. Radiation exposure is minimized by shielding the abdomen with a lead-lined apron.
• C. Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings.
• D. Women at high risk should have annual routine and ultrasound mammograms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important information to provide a post-menopausal female client regarding mammograms is that yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings. It is crucial for post-menopausal women to continue regular mammograms as they are at a higher risk for breast cancer. Option A is incorrect as breast self-examinations are still recommended in addition to mammograms. Option B is not the most important information compared to the importance of regular mammograms. Option D is not the most important advice for all post-menopausal females but specifically for those at high risk, indicating a more targeted approach.

3. Why is lactated Ringer’s solution given to a patient experiencing vomiting and diarrhea?

• A. To increase interstitial and intracellular hydration
• B. To maintain plasma volume over time
• C. To pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid
• D. To replace water and electrolytes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution commonly used to replace water and electrolytes lost due to conditions like vomiting and diarrhea. It helps to restore fluid balance by replacing the lost volume and electrolytes. Option A is incorrect because hypotonic fluids, not lactated Ringer’s solution, increase interstitial and intracellular hydration. Option B is incorrect as colloidal solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, are used to maintain plasma volume over time. Option C is incorrect as hypertonic solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

5. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time?

• A. 11 AM, shortly before lunch.
• B. 1 PM, shortly after lunch.
• C. 6 PM, shortly after dinner.
• D. 1 AM, while sleeping.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 1 AM, while sleeping. Isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) peaks around 6-8 hours after administration, which increases the risk of hypoglycemia during the night. Choice A, 11 AM, shortly before lunch, is incorrect because the peak effect of NPH insulin occurs much later. Choice B, 1 PM, shortly after lunch, is incorrect as it is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice C, 6 PM, shortly after dinner, is also incorrect because the peak risk of hypoglycemia with NPH insulin occurs later in the night.

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