Nursing Elites

1. A patient’s serum osmolality is 305 mOsm/kg. Which term describes this patient’s body fluid osmolality?

• A. Iso-osmolar
• B. Hypo-osmolar
• C. Hyperosmolar
• D. Isotonic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct term to describe a patient with a serum osmolality of 305 mOsm/kg is 'hyperosmolar.' Normal osmolality ranges from 280 to 300 mOsm/kg. A patient with an osmolality above this range is considered hyperosmolar. Choice A ('Iso-osmolar') implies an equal osmolality, which is not the case in this scenario. Choice B ('Hypo-osmolar') suggests a lower osmolality, which is incorrect based on the provided serum osmolality value. Choice D ('Isotonic') refers to a solution having the same osmolality as another solution, not describing the specific scenario of this patient being above the normal range.

2. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:

• A. Administer epinephrine.
• B. Inform the physician.
• C. Administer oxygen.
• D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.

3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is admitted after vomiting bright red blood several times over the course of 2 hours. In reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse finds the client's hemoglobin is 12 g/dL (120g/L) and the hematocrit is 35% (0.35). Which action should the nurse prepare to take?

• A. Continue monitoring for blood loss
• B. Administer 1,000 mL (1L) of normal saline
• C. Transfuse 2 units of platelets
• D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for emergency surgery. The client's presentation with bright red blood in vomitus suggests active bleeding, which is a medical emergency. With a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and a hematocrit of 35%, the client is likely experiencing significant blood loss that may require surgical intervention to address the source of bleeding. Continuing to monitor for blood loss (Choice A) is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate action is necessary. Administering normal saline (Choice B) may help with fluid resuscitation but does not address the underlying cause of bleeding. Transfusing platelets (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as platelets are involved in clot formation and are not the primary treatment for active bleeding in this context.

4. The nurse notes that the only ECG for a 55-year-old male client scheduled for surgery in two hours is dated two years ago. The client reports that he has a history of 'heart trouble,' but has no problems at present. Hospital protocol requires that those over 50 years of age have a recent ECG prior to surgery. What nursing action is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Ask the client to explain what he means by 'heart trouble.'
• B. Call for an ECG to be performed immediately.
• C. Notify surgery that the ECG is over two years old.
• D. Notify the client's surgeon immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is 55 years old with a history of 'heart trouble,' which necessitates a recent ECG before surgery as per hospital policy. The nurse should prioritize patient safety and adhere to the protocol by arranging for an ECG to be performed immediately. Option A is not the best initial action as the focus should be on obtaining the necessary test first. Option C is not the immediate action required, and option D is premature without obtaining the necessary ECG first.

5. The client admitted with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) asks the nurse why her legs hurt when she walks. The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the main characteristic of PVD is:

• A. Decreased blood flow.
• B. Increased blood flow.
• C. Slow blood flow.
• D. Thrombus formation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased blood flow.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), there is a narrowing or blockage of blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow to the extremities. This decreased blood flow results in inadequate oxygen supply to the muscles, causing pain, especially during physical activity when oxygen demand increases. Choice B, 'Increased blood flow,' is incorrect because PVD is characterized by impaired blood circulation rather than increased flow. Choice C, 'Slow blood flow,' is not precise as PVD involves a more significant reduction in blood flow. Choice D, 'Thrombus formation,' is related to the formation of blood clots within vessels, which can be a complication of PVD but is not its main characteristic.

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