the mother of an 11 year old boy who has juvenile arthritis tells the nurse i really dont want my son to become dependent on pain medication so i only
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam

1. The mother of an 11-year-old boy with juvenile arthritis tells the nurse, 'I really don’t want my son to become dependent on pain medication, so I only allow him to take it when he is really hurting.' Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this mother?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should educate the mother that giving pain medication around the clock helps maintain a consistent level of pain control, preventing severe pain episodes and improving the child's quality of life. It is essential to manage pain proactively rather than waiting for the child to be in severe pain before administering medication. Choices A, B, and C do not address the importance of proactive pain management and maintaining a consistent level of pain control. Encouraging rest, quiet activities, or hot baths as distractions or alternatives may not provide adequate pain relief for the child with juvenile arthritis, and they do not address the underlying issue of effective pain management.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a 6-month-old infant with heart failure. The healthcare provider notes that the infant’s heart rate is 90 beats per minute. What should the healthcare provider do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Digoxin should be withheld if the infant’s heart rate is below 100 beats per minute. Administering digoxin in this situation can further slow down the heart rate in infants with heart failure, leading to potential adverse effects. Reassessing the heart rate in 30 minutes is not the best immediate action to take, as prompt notification and withholding of the medication are crucial. Administering the medication as prescribed or giving half the dose can exacerbate the situation by potentially further lowering the heart rate.

3. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

4. A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic because the baby does not sleep through the night. Which finding is most significant in planning care for this family?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe skin breakdown in the diaper area is a significant finding indicating a potential health issue that needs immediate attention. It may be a sign of a skin condition, such as a diaper rash, which can cause discomfort and pain for the infant. Addressing this concern promptly is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the baby's well-being. The other choices may also be important in assessing the overall situation of the family, but in terms of immediate care for the infant, the severe skin breakdown takes priority.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

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