Nursing Elites

1. The mother of an 11-year-old boy with juvenile arthritis tells the nurse, 'I really don’t want my son to become dependent on pain medication, so I only allow him to take it when he is really hurting.' Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this mother?

• A. Encouraging the child to rest when he experiences pain
• B. Encouraging quiet activities like watching television as a pain distractor
• C. Suggesting the use of hot baths as an alternative to pain medication
• D. Explaining that giving pain medication around the clock helps control the pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should educate the mother that giving pain medication around the clock helps maintain a consistent level of pain control, preventing severe pain episodes and improving the child's quality of life. It is essential to manage pain proactively rather than waiting for the child to be in severe pain before administering medication. Choices A, B, and C do not address the importance of proactive pain management and maintaining a consistent level of pain control. Encouraging rest, quiet activities, or hot baths as distractions or alternatives may not provide adequate pain relief for the child with juvenile arthritis, and they do not address the underlying issue of effective pain management.

2. An 8-year-old male client with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased periorbital edema
• C. Increased periods of rest
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg/day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome treatment, decreased periorbital edema is a positive therapeutic response as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention. Periorbital edema is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome due to fluid accumulation, so a decrease in this swelling signifies an improvement in the condition.

3. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?

• A. Administer a corticosteroid
• B. Obtain a throat culture
• C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
• D. Place the child in an upright position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.

4. A 15-year-old adolescent with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital for severe weight loss. The nurse notes that the client has dry skin, brittle hair, and is severely underweight. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
• B. Monitor the client’s vital signs frequently
• C. Initiate a structured eating plan
• D. Provide education about healthy eating habits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention for the nurse is to initiate a structured eating plan. Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by severe food restriction, which can lead to malnutrition and severe weight loss. By starting a structured eating plan, the nurse can ensure the client receives the necessary nutrition to begin the process of weight restoration and recovery. Monitoring vital signs is essential, but without addressing the nutrition deficiency, vital signs may not improve significantly. Establishing a therapeutic relationship is crucial for long-term care but may not address the immediate risk of malnutrition. Providing education about healthy eating habits is important but may not be effective initially due to the severity of the client's condition.

5. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

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