Nursing Elites

1. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the hospital with a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL. The client is lethargic and has fruity-smelling breath. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed
• B. Start an IV infusion of normal saline
• C. Check the client’s urine for ketones
• D. Monitor the client’s vital signs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse is to start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client's presentation with lethargy, fruity-smelling breath, and high blood glucose level indicates diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). IV fluids are essential to correct dehydration and help stabilize the client's condition. Checking for ketones in the urine is important, but fluid replacement takes precedence to address the immediate risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering insulin is also a crucial intervention for DKA, but fluid resuscitation should first be initiated.

2. What action should be taken by the healthcare provider for a child who has ingested a corrosive product?

• A. Induce vomiting using Ipecac to remove the corrosive agent.
• B. Administer vinegar or lemon juice to neutralize the caustic agent.
• C. Give activated charcoal to decontaminate the stomach.
• D. Telephone the poison control center and follow their advice.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of corrosive product ingestion, it is crucial to contact the poison control center for guidance. Inducing vomiting or attempting to neutralize the agent can lead to further harm. The poison control center professionals are trained to provide specific instructions tailored to the situation, ensuring the best possible outcome for the child. Therefore, the correct action is to call the poison control center for appropriate advice. Inducing vomiting can cause additional damage by re-exposing the esophagus and mouth to the corrosive substance. Administering vinegar or lemon juice is not recommended as it may worsen the situation by causing a chemical reaction. While activated charcoal can be useful in some cases of poisoning, it is not recommended for corrosive substances as it is ineffective in binding to them.

3. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
• B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
• C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

4. What action should the nurse implement after the infusion is complete for a 16-year-old with acute myelocytic leukemia receiving chemotherapy via an implanted medication port at the outpatient oncology clinic?

• A. Administer Zofran
• B. Obtain blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
• C. Flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution
• D. Initiate an infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After completing the chemotherapy infusion via the implanted medication port, the nurse should flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution. This action helps prevent clot formation in the port, ensuring its patency for future use and reducing the risk of complications associated with catheter occlusion. Administering Zofran (Choice A) is used for managing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, not for post-infusion care. Obtaining blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets (Choice B) is important for monitoring the patient's blood count but is not the immediate post-infusion priority. Initiating an infusion of normal saline (Choice D) is not necessary after completing the chemotherapy infusion.

5. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist agent albuterol (Proventil). The child's mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son's airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's priority is to reassure the mother that she is using albuterol correctly to open her son's airways during episodes of difficulty breathing. This reassurance helps build trust and ensures that the child receives the intended benefit of the medication. The answer choice recommending immediate evaluation (A) is not appropriate at this point as the mother is using the medication as prescribed. Advising about overuse causing chronic bronchitis (B) is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm. Confirming that the medication helps reduce airway inflammation (D) is not the best response because albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist used primarily for bronchodilation in acute asthma exacerbations, rather than for reducing inflammation.

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