a child with pertussis is receiving azithromycin zithromax injection iv which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the childs pl
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam

1. A child with pertussis is receiving azithromycin (Zithromax Injection) IV. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the child's plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering azithromycin IV, monitoring for signs of an allergic reaction, such as facial swelling or urticaria, is crucial. This helps in early detection of potential adverse reactions and ensures prompt intervention to prevent complications associated with the medication. The other options are not directly related to the administration of azithromycin IV in this scenario. Monitoring for fluid overload would be more relevant for fluid administration, changing IV site dressing is important but not the priority in this case, and assessing for abdominal pain and vomiting may be important but not as critical as monitoring for signs of an allergic reaction.

2. When caring for a 4-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease, the parent asks about foods to avoid. Which response by the nurse is correct?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Celiac disease is managed with a strict gluten-free diet, necessitating the avoidance of foods containing wheat, barley, and rye. Gluten is found in these grains and can trigger an immune response in individuals with celiac disease, leading to damage to the small intestine. Therefore, it is essential for individuals with celiac disease, including children, to carefully avoid gluten-containing foods to maintain their health and well-being.

3. A 9-year-old child is brought to the clinic with a fever, rash, and swollen joints. The nurse notes that the child had a sore throat two weeks ago that was not treated. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the child's symptoms of fever, rash, and swollen joints following an untreated sore throat two weeks ago are indicative of rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can develop as a complication of untreated streptococcal infections, leading to systemic inflammation and affecting various organs, including the joints. This condition manifests with symptoms such as fever, rash, and swollen joints, aligning with the child's presentation in this case. Scarlet fever typically presents with a sandpapery rash and strawberry tongue but does not involve joint inflammation. Kawasaki disease presents with fever, rash, and mucous membrane changes but does not typically involve joint swelling. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint swelling but is not directly linked to a recent untreated sore throat.

4. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old adolescent who is admitted with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. The adolescent’s vital signs are stable, but the nurse notes that the client has dry skin and appears thin. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with bulimia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances are common due to purging behaviors and can lead to severe complications. Monitoring electrolyte levels is essential to detect and manage any imbalances promptly, as they can be life-threatening.

5. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

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