Nursing Elites

1. A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. The child’s parent reports that the pain started suddenly and is located in the lower right abdomen. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer pain medication
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Start an IV line for fluid administration
• D. Obtain a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The child's presentation of sudden, severe abdominal pain in the lower right abdomen is highly concerning for appendicitis, a medical emergency. Promptly notifying the healthcare provider is crucial for further evaluation and management. Administering pain medication as the first action might mask symptoms and delay diagnosis. Starting an IV line for fluid administration and obtaining a complete blood count are important interventions but should come after healthcare provider notification.

2. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in the plan of care for a child with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Encourage fluid intake.
• B. Promote complete bed rest.
• C. Weigh the child daily.
• D. Administer vitamin supplements.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Weighing the child daily is crucial in managing a child with acute glomerulonephritis as it helps in monitoring fluid retention, which is a key concern in this condition. Daily weight monitoring allows healthcare providers to assess changes in fluid status and adjust treatment accordingly. It is an essential component of the care plan to ensure the child's health status is closely monitored during the management of acute glomerulonephritis. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice A) is generally beneficial but may not be the priority in this case where fluid retention needs close monitoring. Promoting complete bed rest (Choice B) can be important but may not be the most critical intervention. Administering vitamin supplements (Choice D) may not directly address the immediate concerns related to fluid retention in acute glomerulonephritis.

3. A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
• B. Respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• D. Blood pressure of 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant's clinical picture?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis.
• B. Respiratory acidosis.
• C. Metabolic acidosis.
• D. Respiratory alkalosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis leads to obstruction at the outlet of the stomach, causing frequent vomiting and loss of stomach acids. This results in a loss of hydrochloric acid and hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis due to an increase in serum bicarbonate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic alkalosis. Choice B, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect as it is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Choice C, metabolic acidosis, is incorrect because the loss of stomach acids in pyloric stenosis leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D, respiratory alkalosis, is also incorrect as it is not the usual consequence of pyloric stenosis.

5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

Similar Questions