Nursing Elites

1. A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. The child’s parent reports that the pain started suddenly and is located in the lower right abdomen. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer pain medication
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Start an IV line for fluid administration
• D. Obtain a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The child's presentation of sudden, severe abdominal pain in the lower right abdomen is highly concerning for appendicitis, a medical emergency. Promptly notifying the healthcare provider is crucial for further evaluation and management. Administering pain medication as the first action might mask symptoms and delay diagnosis. Starting an IV line for fluid administration and obtaining a complete blood count are important interventions but should come after healthcare provider notification.

2. An adolescent female who is leaning forward with her hands on her knees to breathe tells the practical nurse that she has been using triamcinolone (Azmacort) inhalation aerosol before coming to the clinic. Which action should the PN implement?

• A. Obtain vital signs and assess breath sounds for wheezing.
• B. Collect a blood sample for white blood cell count.
• C. Give the client a nebulizer breathing treatment.
• D. Administer another dose of Azmacort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient presents with breathing difficulties, the first action should be to assess vital signs and breath sounds to evaluate the severity of the condition. This assessment will provide crucial information to determine the appropriate course of action and treatment. Collecting a blood sample for a white blood cell count, giving a nebulizer treatment, or administering another dose of Azmacort would not be the initial priority in this situation. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it focuses on assessing the patient's respiratory status to guide further interventions.

3. A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist agent albuterol (Proventil). The child's mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son's airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Recommend that the mother bring the child in for immediate evaluation
• B. Advise the mother that overuse of the drug may cause chronic bronchitis
• C. Assure the mother that she is using the medication correctly
• D. Confirm that the medication helps to reduce airway inflammation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's priority is to reassure the mother that she is using albuterol correctly to open her son's airways during episodes of difficulty breathing. This reassurance helps build trust and ensures that the child receives the intended benefit of the medication. The answer choice recommending immediate evaluation (A) is not appropriate at this point as the mother is using the medication as prescribed. Advising about overuse causing chronic bronchitis (B) is incorrect and may cause unnecessary alarm. Confirming that the medication helps reduce airway inflammation (D) is not the best response because albuterol is a beta-adrenergic agonist used primarily for bronchodilation in acute asthma exacerbations, rather than for reducing inflammation.

4. A mother reports to the nurse at the pediatric clinic that her toddler has had a fever and sore throat for the past two days. The nurse observes several swollen red spots on the child's body, some of which are fluid-filled blisters. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a fluid culture from the blisters
• B. Administer a fever-reducing medication
• C. Cover the draining vesicles with a dressing
• D. Implement transmission precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of swollen red spots and fluid-filled blisters may indicate a contagious condition. Implementing transmission precautions is crucial to prevent the spread of the infection to others in the clinic setting.

5. What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.

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