Nursing Elites

1. A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. The child’s parent reports that the pain started suddenly and is located in the lower right abdomen. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer pain medication
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Start an IV line for fluid administration
• D. Obtain a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The child's presentation of sudden, severe abdominal pain in the lower right abdomen is highly concerning for appendicitis, a medical emergency. Promptly notifying the healthcare provider is crucial for further evaluation and management. Administering pain medication as the first action might mask symptoms and delay diagnosis. Starting an IV line for fluid administration and obtaining a complete blood count are important interventions but should come after healthcare provider notification.

2. The healthcare provider is developing the plan of care for a hospitalized child with von Willebrand disease. What priority nursing intervention should be included in this child's plan of care?

• A. Reduce exposure to infection.
• B. Eliminate contact with cold objects.
• C. Guard against bleeding injuries.
• D. Reduce contact with other children.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Children with von Willebrand disease have a deficiency in a clotting protein, putting them at risk of bleeding episodes. The priority nursing intervention for a child with von Willebrand disease is to guard against bleeding injuries to prevent excessive bleeding or hemorrhage. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority interventions for von Willebrand disease. While reducing exposure to infection is important for any hospitalized child, it is not the priority for von Willebrand disease. Eliminating contact with cold objects is more relevant for conditions like Raynaud's disease. Reducing contact with other children is not a specific priority related to managing von Willebrand disease.

3. When caring for a 4-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease, the parent asks about foods to avoid. Which response by the nurse is correct?

• A. Avoid all dairy products
• B. Avoid foods containing wheat, barley, and rye
• C. Avoid all foods high in sugar
• D. Avoid foods with artificial coloring

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Celiac disease is managed with a strict gluten-free diet, necessitating the avoidance of foods containing wheat, barley, and rye. Gluten is found in these grains and can trigger an immune response in individuals with celiac disease, leading to damage to the small intestine. Therefore, it is essential for individuals with celiac disease, including children, to carefully avoid gluten-containing foods to maintain their health and well-being.

4. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
• B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
• C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

5. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario since the heart rate of 128 bpm is within an acceptable range for a 2-year-old child with heart failure. Monitoring for signs of digoxin toxicity is important; however, the immediate action required is to administer the scheduled dose as prescribed based on the heart rate assessment.

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