Nursing Elites

1. Before administering a tube feeding to a child, what should the practical nurse (PN) assess?

• A. Tube placement.
• B. Bowel sounds.
• C. Abdominal circumference.
• D. Tube patency.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing tube placement is critical before initiating a tube feeding to verify its correct positioning in the stomach. This assessment helps prevent potential complications such as aspiration if the tube is incorrectly placed in the respiratory tract. Checking bowel sounds, abdominal circumference, and tube patency are important assessments in the care of a child receiving tube feedings, but ensuring proper tube placement takes precedence to ensure safe and effective delivery of nutrition.

2. A 4-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 to 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional assessment finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

• A. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds.
• B. Diaphragmatic respiration.
• C. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute.
• D. Flaring of the nares.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a clinical sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. It indicates an increased effort to breathe and is a crucial finding that requires immediate attention, as it signifies the child is having difficulty breathing and may be in respiratory distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds may be present in conditions like pneumonia but do not specifically indicate acute respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic respiration is a normal breathing pattern and not a sign of distress. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute in a 4-month-old infant is within the expected range, so it does not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.

3. What intervention should the nurse implement first for a male toddler brought to the emergency center approximately three hours after swallowing tablets from his grandmother’s bottle of digoxin (Lanoxin)?

• A. Administer activated charcoal orally
• B. Prepare gastric lavage
• C. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• D. Give IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of digoxin toxicity, IV digoxin immune fab (Digibind) is the antidote and should be administered first to counteract the effects of digoxin poisoning. This intervention is crucial in managing digoxin overdose and should be initiated promptly to improve patient outcomes. Activated charcoal and gastric lavage are not effective in treating digoxin poisoning and may not be beneficial at this stage. While obtaining an electrocardiogram is important to assess cardiac function, administering the antidote should take precedence to address the immediate life-threatening effects of digoxin toxicity.

4. The healthcare provider is evaluating diet teaching for a client who has nontropical sprue (celiac disease). Choosing which food indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. Creamed corn.
• B. Pancakes.
• C. Rye crackers.
• D. Cooked oatmeal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Creamed corn is a gluten-free food, making it a suitable option for clients with celiac disease. This choice indicates effective diet teaching as it aligns with the dietary restrictions necessary for managing the condition. Pancakes, rye crackers, and cooked oatmeal contain gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, they are not suitable choices and would not indicate effective teaching for a client with this condition.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which finding should the healthcare provider report promptly to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dark-colored urine
• B. Mild periorbital edema
• C. Blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypertension is a serious complication of glomerulonephritis, as it can lead to further renal damage. A blood pressure reading of 150/95 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate management to prevent complications. Dark-colored urine can be a common symptom of glomerulonephritis due to blood in the urine but is not as urgent as managing hypertension. Mild periorbital edema can also be seen in glomerulonephritis but is not as concerning as elevated blood pressure. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concern, but addressing hypertension takes priority to prevent further renal damage.

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