Nursing Elites

1. A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• C. White blood cells
• D. Platelets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored closely after blood transfusions to assess the effectiveness and identify any complications. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps evaluate the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume. While platelets are crucial for clotting, they are not typically affected immediately after a blood transfusion. White blood cell count monitoring is more relevant in assessing infection or immune response, not directly related to a blood transfusion. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is not the primary concern immediately after a blood transfusion.

2. Which of these nursing diagnoses of 4 elderly clients would place 1 client at the greatest risk for falls?

• A. Sensory perceptual alterations related to decreased vision
• B. Alteration in mobility related to fatigue
• C. Impaired gas exchange related to retained secretions
• D. Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Altered patterns of urinary elimination related to nocturia. Nocturia increases the risk of falls in elderly clients due to frequent nighttime trips to the bathroom. Choice A is incorrect because while decreased vision can contribute to falls, nocturia poses a more direct risk. Choice B is incorrect as fatigue may affect mobility but is not as directly linked to falls as nocturia. Choice C is incorrect as impaired gas exchange is not typically associated with an increased risk of falls.

3. The parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin) have received discharge instructions from the nurse. Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

• A. We will call the healthcare provider if the child develops acne.
• B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
• C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occurs.
• D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Proper oral hygiene, including brushing and flossing carefully after every meal, is essential for children on phenytoin to prevent gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect. Choice A is incorrect because acne is not a common side effect of phenytoin and does not require immediate healthcare provider notification. Choice C is incorrect because vomiting or fever should not prompt skipping a dose without consulting the healthcare provider first. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin should never be done abruptly or without healthcare provider guidance, even if the child is seizure-free for 6 months.

4. When reassigned to the emergency department, a nurse should understand that gastric lavage is a priority in which situation?

• A. An infant who has been identified to have botulism
• B. A toddler who ate a number of ibuprofen tablets
• C. A preschooler who swallowed powdered plant food
• D. A school-aged child who took a handful of vitamins

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because gastric lavage is a priority for infants with botulism to remove toxins from the stomach. Botulism is a serious condition caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria. Gastric lavage helps in removing the toxin from the stomach. Choice B is incorrect because gastric lavage is not typically indicated for ibuprofen ingestion. Choice C is incorrect because gastric lavage is not the first-line treatment for ingesting powdered plant food. Choice D is incorrect because gastric lavage is not routinely performed for vitamin ingestion.

5. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?

• A. Bruising at the operative site
• B. Elevated heart rate
• C. Decreased platelet count
• D. No bowel movement for 3 days

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.

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