Nursing Elites

1. A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• C. White blood cells
• D. Platelets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored closely after blood transfusions to assess the effectiveness and identify any complications. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps evaluate the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume. While platelets are crucial for clotting, they are not typically affected immediately after a blood transfusion. White blood cell count monitoring is more relevant in assessing infection or immune response, not directly related to a blood transfusion. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is not the primary concern immediately after a blood transfusion.

2. During the care of a client with a salmonella infection, what is the primary nursing intervention to limit transmission?

• A. Wash hands thoroughly before and after client contact
• B. Wear gloves when in contact with body secretions
• C. Double glove when in contact with feces or vomitus
• D. Wear gloves when disposing of contaminated linens

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to wash hands thoroughly before and after client contact when caring for a client with a salmonella infection. This approach is crucial in preventing the transmission of the infection. While wearing gloves when in contact with body secretions (Choice B), double gloving when in contact with feces or vomitus (Choice C), and wearing gloves when disposing of contaminated linens (Choice D) are important infection control measures, the primary intervention to limit the spread of salmonella is proper hand hygiene.

3. A client with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Which of these assessments is the highest priority for the nurse to perform?

• A. Auscultation of breath sounds
• B. Measurement of peak expiratory flow
• C. Observation of the client's use of accessory muscles
• D. Assessment of the client's skin color

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Auscultation of breath sounds is the highest priority assessment in a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing. It helps the nurse evaluate the severity of the asthma exacerbation by listening for wheezing, crackles, or decreased breath sounds. This assessment guides treatment decisions, such as administering bronchodilators or oxygen therapy. Measurement of peak expiratory flow, although important in assessing asthma severity, may not be feasible in an emergency situation where immediate intervention is needed. Observation of accessory muscle use and assessment of skin color are also important assessments in asthma exacerbation, but auscultation of breath sounds takes precedence in determining the need for urgent interventions.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with anticoagulants. Which of these findings is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Presence of bruising on the arms and legs
• B. The client reports new onset of severe headache
• C. The client reports pain and swelling in the calf
• D. The client reports increased urination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because pain and swelling in the calf can indicate a new or worsening DVT, requiring immediate attention. Bruising on the arms and legs may be a common side effect of anticoagulants but is not as concerning as a potential DVT. Severe headache may indicate other conditions like a migraine or hypertension and is not directly related to DVT. Increased urination is not typically associated with DVT and may point towards other health issues like diabetes or urinary tract infections.

5. A healthcare professional is assisting with the development of an education program about nutritional risk among adolescents to a group of parents of adolescents. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply).

• A. Skipping more than three meals per week
• B. Eating fast food once a week
• C. Hearty appetite
• D. Drink whole milk to ensure adequate calcium intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Skipping more than three meals per week is an indicator of poor nutritional habits in adolescents. This can lead to inadequate nutrient intake and negatively impact growth and development. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with poor nutritional habits among adolescents. Eating fast food once a week may not necessarily indicate poor nutrition if the overall diet is balanced. Having a hearty appetite does not provide specific information about nutritional risk, as appetite can vary among individuals. While whole milk can be a source of calcium, it is not necessary to drink whole milk specifically to ensure adequate calcium intake, as there are other sources of calcium available.

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