Nursing Elites

1. A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• C. White blood cells
• D. Platelets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored closely after blood transfusions to assess the effectiveness and identify any complications. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps evaluate the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume. While platelets are crucial for clotting, they are not typically affected immediately after a blood transfusion. White blood cell count monitoring is more relevant in assessing infection or immune response, not directly related to a blood transfusion. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is not the primary concern immediately after a blood transfusion.

2. During an excretory urogram, which observation made by the nurse indicates a complication?

• A. The client complains of a salty taste in the mouth when the dye is injected
• B. The client's entire body turns a bright red color
• C. The client states 'I have a feeling of getting warm.'
• D. The client gags and complains 'I am getting sick.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The observation of the client's entire body turning a bright red color during an excretory urogram indicates a severe reaction to the dye, which is a significant complication. This reaction is likely due to an allergic response and requires immediate medical attention. The other choices do not signify a severe complication: choice A could be a normal taste sensation related to the procedure, choice C may indicate a mild reaction, and choice D could be a common side effect of nausea without indicating a severe complication requiring immediate intervention.

3. A client with gastroesophageal reflux is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating after supper.
• B. I can drink coffee throughout the day.
• C. I drink milk when I get heartburn.
• D. I should not eat foods made with chocolate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Drinking coffee throughout the day can aggravate gastroesophageal reflux symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements that can help manage gastroesophageal reflux by avoiding late-night eating, not consuming trigger foods like chocolate, and using milk for relief when experiencing heartburn.

4. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who is receiving chemotherapy and is showing manifestations of malnutrition. Which of the following indicates a Vitamin C deficiency?

• A. Dry, red conjunctiva
• B. Swollen, bleeding gums
• C. Inflammation of the tongue
• D. Pale, brittle nails

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen, bleeding gums are a classic sign of scurvy, which is caused by a deficiency in Vitamin C. Dry, red conjunctiva, inflammation of the tongue, and pale, brittle nails are not specific manifestations of Vitamin C deficiency, making them incorrect choices.

5. A client who is pregnant and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being taught about nutrition at home by a nurse. Which of the following statements indicate that the client understands the teachings?

• A. I will drink water with my meals.
• B. I will eat every 6 hours throughout the day.
• C. I will eat crackers before I get out of bed in the morning.
• D. I will limit my protein intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help manage nausea associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice A is incorrect because drinking water with meals may exacerbate nausea. Choice B is incorrect as eating every 6 hours may not be frequent enough to combat nausea and vomiting. Choice D is incorrect because protein intake should not be limited during pregnancy, especially in cases of hyperemesis gravidarum.

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