Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has a burn injury and adheres to a strict vegan diet. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend?

• A. Tuna salad
• B. Fresh fruit
• C. Vegetables
• D. Beans

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Beans are an excellent choice for a client with a burn injury who follows a strict vegan diet. They are a rich source of protein, essential for healing, making them the most suitable option among the choices provided. Tuna salad (choice A) is not suitable for a vegan diet as it contains animal products. While fresh fruit (choice B) and vegetables (choice C) are healthy options, they may not provide sufficient protein needed for healing from a burn injury.

2. The nurse is caring for a client undergoing the placement of a central venous catheter line. Which of the following would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Pallor
• B. Increased temperature
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Involuntary muscle spasms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea indicates a potential complication such as pneumothorax or incorrect catheter placement, requiring immediate attention. Pallor may indicate anemia but is not as urgent as dyspnea in this context. Increased temperature could be a sign of infection but is not as critical as respiratory distress. Involuntary muscle spasms are not directly related to central venous catheter placement and are of lower priority compared to respiratory issues.

3. The nurse is caring for a child immediately after surgical correction of a ventricular septal defect. Which of the following nursing assessments should be a priority?

• A. Assess nail beds for color and refill
• B. Assess for postoperative arrhythmias
• C. Auscultate for pulmonary congestion
• D. Monitor equality of peripheral pulses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postoperative arrhythmias are a common and potentially serious complication after cardiac surgery, making them a priority to monitor. Assessing for postoperative arrhythmias takes precedence over other assessments like checking nail beds for color and refill, auscultating for pulmonary congestion, or monitoring peripheral pulses as arrhythmias can have immediate and severe implications for the child's health.

4. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Phosphate
• D. Albumin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.

5. A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?

• A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
• B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
• C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
• D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A malnourished client on bed rest is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to a combination of factors such as poor nutritional status and immobility. Malnourished individuals have compromised skin integrity, making them more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Being on bed rest further exacerbates this risk as constant pressure on bony prominences can lead to tissue damage. Although the other choices may also be at risk for developing decubitus ulcers, the malnourished client on bed rest presents the highest risk due to the combination of malnutrition and immobility.

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