Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has been teaching a client with Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I use a sliding scale to adjust regular insulin to my sugar level.
• B. Since my eyesight is so bad, I ask the nurse to fill several syringes.
• C. I keep my regular insulin bottle in the refrigerator.
• D. I always make sure to shake the NPH bottle hard to mix it well.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shaking the NPH insulin bottle hard can cause air bubbles and affect dosing accuracy; it should be rolled gently instead.

2. For a client with chronic kidney disease having a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL, which intervention should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer erythropoietin as ordered
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure
• C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level
• D. Assess the client for signs of fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering erythropoietin is the priority intervention for a client with chronic kidney disease and a low hemoglobin level. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, helping to manage anemia in these clients. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation level, and assessing for signs of fatigue are important aspects of care but addressing the anemia by administering erythropoietin takes precedence to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and overall well-being.

3. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Platelet count
• C. Activated PTT
• D. Clotting time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with anticoagulants. Which of these findings is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Presence of bruising on the arms and legs
• B. The client reports new onset of severe headache
• C. The client reports pain and swelling in the calf
• D. The client reports increased urination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because pain and swelling in the calf can indicate a new or worsening DVT, requiring immediate attention. Bruising on the arms and legs may be a common side effect of anticoagulants but is not as concerning as a potential DVT. Severe headache may indicate other conditions like a migraine or hypertension and is not directly related to DVT. Increased urination is not typically associated with DVT and may point towards other health issues like diabetes or urinary tract infections.

5. What nursing assessment of a paralyzed client would indicate the probable presence of a fecal impaction?

• A. Presence of blood in stools
• B. Oozing liquid stool
• C. Continuous rumbling flatulence
• D. Absence of bowel movements

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Oozing liquid stool.' In a paralyzed client, oozing liquid stool is a common sign of fecal impaction. This occurrence requires prompt intervention to prevent complications. Choice A, 'Presence of blood in stools,' is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than fecal impaction. Choice C, 'Continuous rumbling flatulence,' is associated with gas movement in the intestines and not specifically linked to fecal impaction. Choice D, 'Absence of bowel movements,' could be a sign of constipation but does not directly point towards fecal impaction.

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