Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving intravenous antibiotics for the treatment of a severe infection. Which of these assessments is a priority for the nurse to perform?

• A. Monitor the client's temperature
• B. Assess the client's pain level
• C. Check the intravenous (IV) site for signs of phlebitis
• D. Monitor the client's respiratory status

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving intravenous antibiotics, checking the IV site for signs of phlebitis is a priority assessment for the nurse. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the vein, which can lead to serious complications such as infection and thrombosis. Monitoring the IV site helps prevent these complications and ensures the safe delivery of antibiotics. While monitoring the client's temperature, pain level, and respiratory status are important assessments, they are not the priority in this scenario where IV antibiotic administration requires close monitoring for complications like phlebitis.

2. The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops urticaria half an hour after the transfusion has begun. What is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Stop the infusion
• B. Slow the rate of infusion
• C. Take vital signs and observe for further deterioration
• D. Administer Benadryl and continue the infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client developing urticaria during a blood transfusion, the immediate priority for the nurse is to stop the infusion. This action is crucial to prevent further administration of the allergen causing the reaction. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice B) may not be sufficient to address the allergic response effectively. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, stopping the infusion takes precedence to prevent worsening of the reaction. Administering Benadryl (Choice D) should be considered after stopping the infusion, following the healthcare provider's orders, and assessing the client's condition.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 350 mg/dL. Which of these actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer insulin as ordered
• B. Encourage the client to drink fluids
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 30 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering insulin as ordered is the priority action when a client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 350 mg/dL. Insulin helps to lower the high blood glucose level and prevent complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis. Encouraging the client to drink fluids may be beneficial but does not address the immediate need to lower the blood glucose level. Notifying the healthcare provider and rechecking the blood glucose level can be important steps but should come after administering insulin to address the high glucose level promptly.

4. A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?

• A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
• B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
• C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
• D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A malnourished client on bed rest is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to a combination of factors such as poor nutritional status and immobility. Malnourished individuals have compromised skin integrity, making them more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Being on bed rest further exacerbates this risk as constant pressure on bony prominences can lead to tissue damage. Although the other choices may also be at risk for developing decubitus ulcers, the malnourished client on bed rest presents the highest risk due to the combination of malnutrition and immobility.

5. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?

• A. Bruising at the operative site
• B. Elevated heart rate
• C. Decreased platelet count
• D. No bowel movement for 3 days

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.

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