Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial-thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatment?

• A. The medication is an antibacterial.
• B. The medication will help heal the burn.
• C. The medication will permanently stain my skin.
• D. The medication should be applied directly to the wound.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Silver sulfadiazine is an antibacterial used to treat burns, helping in the healing process. It does not permanently stain the skin. Therefore, the statement indicating a lack of understanding is that the medication will permanently stain the skin.

2. Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Triglyceride level
• C. Complete blood count
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering Isotretinoin, it is important to check the client's triglyceride levels. Isotretinoin is known to elevate triglyceride levels, hence monitoring them before and periodically during treatment is essential to prevent potential adverse effects.

3. Mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept) is prescribed for a client as prophylaxis for organ rejection following an allogeneic renal transplant. Which of the following instructions does the nurse reinforce regarding administration of this medication?

• A. Administer on an empty stomach.
• B. Take the medication with a calcium-type antacid.
• C. Open the capsule and mix with food for administration.
• D. Contact the health care provider (HCP) if a sore throat occurs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept) is to contact the healthcare provider (HCP) if unusual bleeding or bruising, sore throat, or other adverse effects occur. It is essential not to open or crush the capsules to maintain the medication's efficacy.

4. A client is receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine). The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects of the medication and should observe for which of the following?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Constipation
• C. Hypertension
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) stimulates muscarinic receptors, which can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial when administering this medication. Constipation, hypertension, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the effects of bethanechol chloride. Bradycardia is the correct adverse effect to monitor for, making option A the correct answer. Constipation, hypertension, and dry mouth are not commonly seen with bethanechol chloride and are therefore incorrect choices.

5. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

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