a client with angina pectoris is experiencing chest pain that radiates down the left arm the nurse administers a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet to th a client with angina pectoris is experiencing chest pain that radiates down the left arm the nurse administers a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet to th
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client with angina pectoris is experiencing chest pain that radiates down the left arm. The nurse administers a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet to the client. The client's pain is unrelieved, and the nurse determines that the client needs another nitroglycerin tablet. Which of the following vital signs is most important for the nurse to check before administering the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is checking the client's blood pressure (C) before administering another nitroglycerin tablet. Nitroglycerin can cause hypotension, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure, especially when giving another dose of nitroglycerin.

2. A client with cholelithiasis is admitted with jaundice due to obstruction of the common bile duct. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important finding for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider in a client with cholelithiasis and jaundice due to common bile duct obstruction is a distended, hard, and rigid abdomen. These signs may indicate a possible surgical emergency, such as a complication like gallbladder perforation or peritonitis, which require immediate intervention. Clay-colored stool is associated with obstructive jaundice but does not indicate an acute surgical emergency. Radiating sharp pain in the right shoulder (referred pain from the diaphragm) and bile-stained emesis may also be seen in cholelithiasis but are not as urgent as a distended, hard, and rigid abdomen.

3. A client with Crohn's disease reports diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Crohn's disease reporting diarrhea is to encourage a high-fiber diet and regular physical activity. A high-fiber diet helps manage diarrhea in Crohn's disease by adding bulk to the stool and promoting more regular bowel movements. Instructing the client to drink clear fluids and avoid solid foods (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it can further exacerbate diarrhea. Administering antidiarrheal medication (Choice B) without addressing the underlying cause may not be the best initial approach. Encouraging a high-fiber diet and physical activity (Choice C) is beneficial for managing symptoms. Restricting fluid intake and monitoring electrolytes (Choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to dehydration, which is a concern in clients with diarrhea.

4. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.

5. Binary fission is a type of asexual reproduction. Which of the following occurs during the binary fission process?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In binary fission, the chromosomes bind to the plasma membrane before the cell splits into two. This initial step ensures that each daughter cell receives a complete set of genetic material. Choice B is incorrect because the spindle apparatus is characteristic of eukaryotic cell division (mitosis), not prokaryotic binary fission. Choice C is incorrect as chromosomes do not necessarily gather in the center of the cell during binary fission. Choice D is incorrect because the chromosomes do not begin to separate in binary fission; they replicate and then move to opposite ends of the cell before division.

Similar Questions

Which drink choice on a hot day indicates that a teenager with sickle cell anemia understands dietary considerations related to the disease?
A 6-year-old boy with bronchial asthma takes the beta-adrenergic agonist agent albuterol (Proventil). The child's mother tells the nurse that she uses this medication to open her son's airway when he is having trouble breathing. What is the nurse's best response?
A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?
A 14-year-old with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of vaso-occlusive crisis. Which statement by the client would be most indicative of the etiology of this crisis?
The healthcare professional is planning a health education workshop for a group of adolescents on the dangers of substance abuse. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

Access More Features

HESI Basic

HESI Basic