Nursing Elites

1. The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?

• A. Paralytic ileus
• B. Incisional pain
• C. Urinary retention
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ondansetron, also known as Zofran, is an antiemetic medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. In the postoperative setting, it is commonly administered to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, which are frequent occurrences after surgery. Ondansetron works by blocking serotonin, a natural substance in the body that can trigger nausea and vomiting. It is also utilized to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct condition for which ondansetron should be administered to the postoperative client is nausea and vomiting.

2. The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) has been taking misoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which of the following is noted?

• A. Resolved diarrhea
• B. Relief of epigastric pain
• C. Decreased platelet count
• D. Decreased white blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Misoprostol is a gastric protectant administered to clients using NSAIDs to prevent gastric mucosal injury. Relief of epigastric pain signifies the medication's therapeutic effect as it indicates a reduction in gastrointestinal symptoms associated with NSAID use.

3. Insulin glargine (Lantus) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse tells the client that it is best to take the insulin:

• A. 1 hour after each meal
• B. Once daily, at the same time each day
• C. 15 minutes before breakfast, lunch, and dinner
• D. Before each meal, based on the blood glucose level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin with a duration of action of approximately 24 hours, making it suitable for once-daily dosing at the same time each day. This regimen helps maintain consistent blood glucose levels and simplifies the client's treatment routine. Taking insulin glargine once daily provides basal insulin coverage throughout the day, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia compared to short-acting insulins that are taken before each meal.

4. A client is receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following potential complications?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bleeding
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant, so the primary potential complication is bleeding. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperkalemia are not direct complications of heparin therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is bleeding, as it is the most significant risk associated with heparin administration.

5. A client is being taught about the use of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will sit or lie down when I take the medication.
• B. I can take up to three tablets, 5 minutes apart, if needed.
• C. I will call 911 if my chest pain is not relieved after taking three tablets.
• D. I will keep the medication in its original dark container.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct administration of nitroglycerin for angina is to take up to three tablets, 5 minutes apart. If the chest pain persists after the third tablet, emergency medical services should be called. Taking more than three tablets or reducing the time interval between doses may lead to hypotension and indicates a need for further teaching.

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