Nursing Elites

1. The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?

• A. Paralytic ileus
• B. Incisional pain
• C. Urinary retention
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ondansetron, also known as Zofran, is an antiemetic medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. In the postoperative setting, it is commonly administered to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, which are frequent occurrences after surgery. Ondansetron works by blocking serotonin, a natural substance in the body that can trigger nausea and vomiting. It is also utilized to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct condition for which ondansetron should be administered to the postoperative client is nausea and vomiting.

2. A client is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitro-Dur) transdermal patch for angina. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Apply the patch to a hairless area of skin.
• B. Leave the patch on for 24 hours.
• C. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
• D. You can keep the patch on while taking a shower.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching plan is to apply the nitroglycerin (Nitro-Dur) transdermal patch at the same time each day. This consistency helps maintain steady blood levels of the medication. While it is important to apply the patch to a hairless area of the skin for proper absorption, it does not necessarily have to be left on for 24 hours; typically, it is worn for 12-14 hours to allow for a nitrate-free period and reduce tolerance. Additionally, the patch can generally be kept on while taking a shower, as water exposure does not typically affect its efficacy.

3. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

4. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

5. A client is receiving sulfisoxazole. Which of the following should be included in the list of instructions?

• A. Restrict fluid intake.
• B. Maintain a high fluid intake.
• C. If the urine turns dark brown, call the healthcare provider (HCP) immediately.
• D. Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is taking sulfisoxazole, it is important to maintain a high fluid intake. Each dose of sulfisoxazole should be taken with a full glass of water, as the medication is more soluble in alkaline urine. Restricting fluid intake is not recommended as it can lead to inadequate hydration. Dark brown urine may be a side effect of some forms of sulfisoxazole but does not necessarily warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. Decreasing the dosage when symptoms improve is not advised as it may lead to treatment failure or the development of resistance.

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