Nursing Elites

1. The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?

• A. Paralytic ileus
• B. Incisional pain
• C. Urinary retention
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ondansetron, also known as Zofran, is an antiemetic medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. In the postoperative setting, it is commonly administered to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, which are frequent occurrences after surgery. Ondansetron works by blocking serotonin, a natural substance in the body that can trigger nausea and vomiting. It is also utilized to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct condition for which ondansetron should be administered to the postoperative client is nausea and vomiting.

2. A client taking fexofenadine (Allegra) is scheduled for allergy skin testing and tells the nurse in the healthcare provider's office that a dose was taken this morning. The nurse determines that:

• A. The client should reschedule the appointment.
• B. A lower dose of allergen will need to be injected.
• C. A higher dose of allergen will need to be injected.
• D. The client should have the skin test read a day later than usual.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fexofenadine, an antihistamine, can cause false-negative readings in allergy skin testing and should be discontinued 3 days prior. Therefore, the client should reschedule the appointment to ensure accurate test results.

3. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching about the use of metoprolol (Lopressor)?

• A. I will not stop taking the medication abruptly.
• B. I will take my pulse before taking the medication.
• C. I will take the medication with food.
• D. I will take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because taking metoprolol (Lopressor) at bedtime is not specifically recommended. Metoprolol should be taken with food to enhance absorption. It is crucial for the client not to stop taking the medication abruptly to prevent rebound hypertension or other adverse effects. Additionally, monitoring the pulse before taking metoprolol is important for assessing its effect on heart rate.

4. The nurse provides medication instructions to an older hypertensive client who is taking 20 mg of lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) orally daily. The nurse evaluates the need for further teaching when the client states which of the following?

• A. I can skip a dose once a week.
• B. I need to change my position slowly.
• C. I take the pill after breakfast each day.
• D. If I get a bad headache, I should call my doctor immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lisinopril should be taken daily as prescribed and not skipped. Skipping doses can lead to ineffective treatment.

5. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

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