Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix), and the nurse is monitoring for adverse effects associated with this medication. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a potential adverse effect? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Nausea
• B. Tinnitus
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to adverse effects such as tinnitus, hypotension, and hypokalemia. While nausea is a common side effect of many medications, it is not typically associated with furosemide. Therefore, the nurse should recognize nausea as a potential adverse effect that doesn't apply to furosemide.

2. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for a client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Notifying the registered nurse
• B. Discontinuing the medication
• C. Informing the client that this is normal
• D. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to inform the client that local discomfort and burning are normal reactions to Mafenide acetate. This medication is used to treat burns by reducing bacteria in avascular tissues. Discontinuing the medication or applying a thinner film than prescribed is not necessary or recommended in this situation.

3. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take the medication at the same time each day.
• C. I will use an electric razor to shave.
• D. I will take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients taking warfarin (Coumadin) should avoid aspirin unless prescribed by their healthcare provider, as it can increase the risk of bleeding. The other statements are correct and do not indicate a need for further teaching. Taking aspirin along with warfarin can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding complications.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus was previously well controlled with daily glyburide (DiaBeta). However, the fasting blood glucose level has recently been in the range of 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone
• B. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• C. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone is known to reduce the effectiveness of oral hypoglycemic medications like glyburide and insulin, which can result in hyperglycemia. Therefore, the addition of prednisone to the client's regimen could have contributed to the elevated fasting blood glucose levels observed.

5. A client with portosystemic encephalopathy is receiving oral lactulose (Chronulac) daily. The nurse assesses which of the following to determine medication effectiveness?

• A. Lung sounds
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Blood ammonia level
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In portosystemic encephalopathy, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is impaired, leading to elevated blood ammonia levels, which can cause neurological symptoms such as encephalopathy. Lactulose is given to reduce ammonia levels by promoting its excretion through the bowel. Therefore, assessing the blood ammonia level is crucial to determine the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in managing portosystemic encephalopathy.

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