Nursing Elites

1. A client has just taken a dose of trimethobenzamide (Tigan). The nurse plans to monitor this client for relief of:

• A. Heartburn
• B. Constipation
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Trimethobenzamide (Tigan) is an antiemetic medication used to treat nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the nurse would monitor the client for relief of nausea and vomiting after taking this medication.

2. A client is receiving morphine sulfate subcutaneously for pain. Because morphine sulfate has been prescribed for this client, which nursing action would be included in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage fluid intake.
• B. Monitor the client's temperature.
• C. Maintain the client in a supine position.
• D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine sulfate suppresses the cough reflex, which can lead to the retention of secretions in the lungs. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe helps prevent pneumonia by clearing the airways of any accumulated secretions. This intervention is crucial in clients receiving morphine sulfate to maintain optimal respiratory function.

3. A client receives a prescription for methocarbamol (Robaxin), and the nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding the medication. Which client statement would indicate a need for further instructions?

• A. My urine may turn brown or green.
• B. This medication is prescribed to help relieve my muscle spasms.
• C. If my vision becomes blurred, I need to be concerned about it.
• D. I need to call my doctor if I experience nasal congestion from this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because blurred vision is an adverse effect of methocarbamol (Robaxin) and should be reported to a healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements. Option A informs the client about a possible discoloration of urine, which is a known side effect. Option B correctly explains the purpose of the medication. Option D correctly advises the client to contact their doctor if they experience nasal congestion, which could indicate an adverse reaction.

4. A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Peripheral neuritis
• C. Small blood vessel spasm
• D. Impaired peripheral circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities indicate peripheral neuritis, a common side effect of isoniazid (INH). This condition can be managed by supplementing with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to minimize the symptoms.

5. When administering hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) to a client, the nurse should be aware of which of the following concerns?

• A. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia
• B. Increased risk of osteoporosis
• C. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy
• D. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, which can lead to hypokalemia and hyperglycemia. It is also associated with hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia. Being a sulfa-based medication, individuals with a sulfa allergy are at risk for an allergic reaction when taking hydrochlorothiazide. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide can cause hyperkalemia rather than hypouricemia. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct link between hydrochlorothiazide and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because hypoglycemia and penicillin allergy are not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.

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