Nursing Elites

1. The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (Myleran). Which laboratory value should the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication?

• A. Clotting time
• B. Uric acid level
• C. Potassium level
• D. Blood glucose level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Uric acid level. Busulfan can cause an increase in uric acid levels, leading to hyperuricemia, renal stones, and acute renal failure. Monitoring uric acid levels is crucial to detect and manage potential complications associated with busulfan therapy.

2. A client is being taught about the use of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will sit or lie down when I take the medication.
• B. I can take up to three tablets, 5 minutes apart, if needed.
• C. I will call 911 if my chest pain is not relieved after taking three tablets.
• D. I will keep the medication in its original dark container.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct administration of nitroglycerin for angina is to take up to three tablets, 5 minutes apart. If the chest pain persists after the third tablet, emergency medical services should be called. Taking more than three tablets or reducing the time interval between doses may lead to hypotension and indicates a need for further teaching.

3. A client is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism and is to be treated with streptokinase (Streptase). A nurse would report which priority data collection finding to the registered nurse before initiating this therapy?

• A. Adventitious breath sounds
• B. Temperature of 99.4°F orally
• C. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Streptokinase therapy is contraindicated in severe uncontrolled hypertension due to the risk of cerebral hemorrhage. A blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg indicates severe hypertension, which needs to be addressed before initiating streptokinase to prevent potential complications.

4. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

5. A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for:

• A. Pupillary changes
• B. Scattered lung wheezes
• C. Sudden increase in pain
• D. Sudden episodes of diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids and may be administered to postoperative clients to address respiratory depression. This medication can also reverse the effects of analgesics, potentially leading to a sudden increase in pain. Therefore, the nurse must assess the client for any unexpected rise in pain levels after naloxone administration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pupillary changes, scattered lung wheezes, and sudden episodes of diarrhea are not typically associated with naloxone administration for respiratory depression.

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