Nursing Elites

1. The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (Myleran). Which laboratory value should the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication?

• A. Clotting time
• B. Uric acid level
• C. Potassium level
• D. Blood glucose level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Uric acid level. Busulfan can cause an increase in uric acid levels, leading to hyperuricemia, renal stones, and acute renal failure. Monitoring uric acid levels is crucial to detect and manage potential complications associated with busulfan therapy.

2. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Increased thirst
• B. Fine hand tremors
• C. Frequent urination
• D. Persistent vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Persistent vomiting can be a sign of lithium toxicity, which requires immediate medical attention. Increased thirst, fine hand tremors, and frequent urination are common side effects of lithium.

3. A client is receiving sulfisoxazole. Which of the following should be included in the list of instructions?

• A. Restrict fluid intake.
• B. Maintain a high fluid intake.
• C. If the urine turns dark brown, call the healthcare provider (HCP) immediately.
• D. Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is taking sulfisoxazole, it is important to maintain a high fluid intake. Each dose of sulfisoxazole should be taken with a full glass of water, as the medication is more soluble in alkaline urine. Restricting fluid intake is not recommended as it can lead to inadequate hydration. Dark brown urine may be a side effect of some forms of sulfisoxazole but does not necessarily warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. Decreasing the dosage when symptoms improve is not advised as it may lead to treatment failure or the development of resistance.

4. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?

• A. Sodium of 140 mEq/L
• B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
• C. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• D. A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.

5. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

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