Nursing Elites

1. A client is on nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client would indicate an understanding of the instructions?

• A. It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol.
• B. The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing.
• C. Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern.
• D. Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Aspirin or a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug can be taken 30 minutes before taking the medication to decrease flushing. Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance this side effect. The medication should be taken with meals, this will decrease gastrointestinal upset. Taking the medication with meals has no effect on the flushing. Clay-colored stools are a sign of hepatic dysfunction and should be immediately reported to the health care provider (HCP).

2. A client has been prescribed cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which food item should the client avoid based on the medication's interaction?

• A. Red meats
• B. Orange juice
• C. Grapefruit juice
• D. Green, leafy vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Grapefruit juice should be avoided when taking cyclosporine because it inhibits the metabolism of the medication, leading to increased blood levels and a higher risk of toxicity. It is important for the client to follow this dietary instruction to ensure the safe and effective use of cyclosporine.

3. A client is receiving instructions from a healthcare provider about intranasal desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). The healthcare provider explains that which of the following is a side effect of the medication?

• A. Headache
• B. Vulval pain
• C. Runny nose
• D. Flushed skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Intranasal desmopressin can cause a runny or stuffy nose as a side effect due to its mode of administration through the nasal passages.

4. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
• D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.

5. When administering hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) to a client, the nurse should be aware of which of the following concerns?

• A. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia
• B. Increased risk of osteoporosis
• C. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy
• D. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, which can lead to hypokalemia and hyperglycemia. It is also associated with hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia. Being a sulfa-based medication, individuals with a sulfa allergy are at risk for an allergic reaction when taking hydrochlorothiazide. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide can cause hyperkalemia rather than hypouricemia. Choice B is incorrect as there is no direct link between hydrochlorothiazide and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect because hypoglycemia and penicillin allergy are not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.

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