Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. What is the appropriate intervention for the nurse?

• A. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
• B. Withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
• D. Withdraw the insulin from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is specifically indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who are taking insulin. Choice A is incorrect because exenatide should not be administered to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. Choice C is not the most appropriate initial action when the prescription is not suitable for the client. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of exenatide. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse is to withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure the safety and appropriateness of the treatment plan for the client.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.125 mg orally, to a client with heart failure. Which vital sign is most important for the healthcare professional to check before administering the medication?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Temperature
• C. Respirations
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before administering digoxin, it is essential to assess the client's heart rate as this medication directly affects cardiac function. Monitoring the heart rate helps identify if it is within the acceptable range for administering digoxin. A pulse rate below 60 beats per minute warrants withholding the medication to prevent potential adverse effects like bradycardia or cardiac arrhythmias.

3. A client is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism and is to be treated with streptokinase (Streptase). A nurse would report which priority data collection finding to the registered nurse before initiating this therapy?

• A. Adventitious breath sounds
• B. Temperature of 99.4°F orally
• C. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Streptokinase therapy is contraindicated in severe uncontrolled hypertension due to the risk of cerebral hemorrhage. A blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg indicates severe hypertension, which needs to be addressed before initiating streptokinase to prevent potential complications.

4. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:

• A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
• B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
• C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
• D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.

5. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

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