HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. What is the appropriate intervention for the nurse?
- A. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
- B. Withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider.
- C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
- D. Withdraw the insulin from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is specifically indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who are taking insulin. Choice A is incorrect because exenatide should not be administered to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. Choice C is not the most appropriate initial action when the prescription is not suitable for the client. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of exenatide. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse is to withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure the safety and appropriateness of the treatment plan for the client.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Zestril). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- B. Avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice.
- C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
- D. Report any swelling of the lips or face.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to 'Report any swelling of the lips or face.' Lisinopril (Zestril) can cause angioedema, which is swelling of the lips or face. This is a serious side effect that should be reported immediately. Clients do not need to avoid potassium-rich foods unless instructed by their healthcare provider, should avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice, and should monitor their blood pressure regularly, not just weekly.
3. The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied:
- A. Immediately before swimming
- B. 15 minutes before exposure to the sun
- C. Immediately before exposure to the sun
- D. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun to allow them to penetrate the skin and provide optimal protection. Applying sunscreen immediately before swimming (Choice A) or immediately before exposure to the sun (Choice C) may not provide sufficient time for the sunscreen to be absorbed and offer proper protection. Applying sunscreen 15 minutes before sun exposure (Choice B) is also not ideal as it may not allow enough time for the sunscreen to work effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply chemical sunscreen at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun to ensure it can be absorbed and offer the intended protection. It is important to reapply sunscreen after swimming or sweating to maintain its effectiveness.
4. A client is receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following potential complications?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bleeding
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant, so the primary potential complication is bleeding. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, hematuria, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperkalemia are not direct complications of heparin therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is bleeding, as it is the most significant risk associated with heparin administration.
5. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Fever
- B. Headache
- C. Nausea
- D. Oliguria
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.
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