HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. What is the appropriate intervention for the nurse?
- A. Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
- B. Withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider.
- C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
- D. Withdraw the insulin from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is specifically indicated for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who are taking insulin. Choice A is incorrect because exenatide should not be administered to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. Choice C is not the most appropriate initial action when the prescription is not suitable for the client. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of exenatide. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse is to withhold the medication and question the prescription with the healthcare provider to ensure the safety and appropriateness of the treatment plan for the client.
2. The client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide (Neosar). The nurse is reinforcing medication instructions and advises the client to:
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily.
- C. Decrease sodium intake while taking the medication.
- D. Increase potassium intake while taking the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily. Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a toxic effect. By increasing fluid intake, the client can help prevent this complication by promoting frequent urination, which reduces the concentration of the drug and its metabolites in the bladder. This dilution effect can help reduce the risk of bladder toxicity.
3. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?
- A. At bedtime
- B. After lunch
- C. With supper
- D. Before breakfast
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.
4. When administering etanercept (Enbrel) to a client with rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks, what is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?
- A. Assessing the injection site for itching and edema
- B. Monitoring white blood cell counts and platelet counts
- C. Evaluating for fatigue and joint pain in the client
- D. Checking for a metallic taste in the mouth and loss of appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority when administering etanercept (Enbrel) to a client with rheumatoid arthritis is to monitor white blood cell counts and platelet counts. Etanercept can lead to infections and pancytopenia, making it crucial to assess for changes in these blood parameters to detect any potential complications early on.
5. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Constipation
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Dry cough
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.
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