the client has been taking omeprazole prilosec for 4 weeks the ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving optimal intended effect of
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI

1. The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.

2. When assessing the effectiveness of leflunomide (Arava) in a client with rheumatoid arthritis, which question should the nurse ask during data collection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess the effectiveness of leflunomide (Arava), a medication used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse should inquire about joint pain. Joint pain is a common symptom of rheumatoid arthritis, and improvement in joint pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in managing the condition.

3. A client who received a kidney transplant is taking azathioprine (Imuran), and the nurse provides instructions about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant taken for life. Discontinuing the medication after 14 days is incorrect.

4. A client is being educated about the use of sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement 'I should take the medication with a high-protein meal' indicates a need for further teaching as sertraline (Zoloft) should not be taken with a high-protein meal due to potential interference with medication absorption. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements associated with the use of sertraline for depression. It is common to experience dizziness when quickly getting up, notice a decrease in sex drive, and important to report any thoughts of self-harm to the healthcare provider while on this medication.

5. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

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