HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. When is the best time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone?
- A. At noon
- B. At bedtime
- C. Early morning
- D. Anytime, at the same time each day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct time for a client to take a daily dose of prednisone is early morning. Corticosteroids like prednisone should be taken in the morning to mimic the body's natural hormone release pattern. This timing helps reduce the risk of disrupting the body's internal clock and minimizes the potential for insomnia or other sleep disturbances.
2. A client with angina pectoris is experiencing chest pain that radiates down the left arm. The nurse administers a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet to the client. The client's pain is unrelieved, and the nurse determines that the client needs another nitroglycerin tablet. Which of the following vital signs is most important for the nurse to check before administering the medication?
- A. Temperature
- B. Respirations
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Radial pulse rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is checking the client's blood pressure (C) before administering another nitroglycerin tablet. Nitroglycerin can cause hypotension, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent a sudden drop in blood pressure, especially when giving another dose of nitroglycerin.
3. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
- B. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
- C. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.
4. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?
- A. Sodium of 140 mEq/L
- B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
- C. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
- D. A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.
5. The healthcare provider is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory value would the healthcare provider specifically note as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy?
- A. Anemia
- B. Decreased platelets
- C. Increased uric acid level
- D. Decreased leukocyte count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Following chemotherapy for leukemias and lymphomas, hyperuricemia is common due to the massive cell kill. Chemotherapy leads to the rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing large amounts of nucleic acids, which are broken down into uric acid. Monitoring and managing uric acid levels are crucial to prevent complications such as renal damage and gout.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access