Nursing Elites

1. A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Peripheral neuritis
• C. Small blood vessel spasm
• D. Impaired peripheral circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities indicate peripheral neuritis, a common side effect of isoniazid (INH). This condition can be managed by supplementing with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to minimize the symptoms.

2. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:

• A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
• B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
• C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
• D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.

3. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, a nurse ensures that which of the following medications is available on the nursing unit?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Potassium chloride
• C. Phytonadione (vitamin K)
• D. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, working to reverse its effects in case of excessive bleeding. It should be readily available when administering heparin to manage any potential bleeding complications effectively. Potassium chloride is not the antidote for heparin and is typically used to correct low potassium levels. Phytonadione (vitamin K) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) is used to treat or prevent excessive bleeding but is not the antidote for heparin.

4. A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A healthcare provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?

• A. 3 to 5 ng/mL
• B. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL
• C. 1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL
• D. 3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The therapeutic serum level for digoxin ranges from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. This range is considered optimal for therapeutic effects while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Levels above 2 ng/mL may lead to digoxin toxicity, which can manifest as anorexia among other symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring the digoxin levels to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of the medication.

5. The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?

• A. Paralytic ileus
• B. Incisional pain
• C. Urinary retention
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ondansetron, also known as Zofran, is an antiemetic medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. In the postoperative setting, it is commonly administered to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, which are frequent occurrences after surgery. Ondansetron works by blocking serotonin, a natural substance in the body that can trigger nausea and vomiting. It is also utilized to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Therefore, the correct condition for which ondansetron should be administered to the postoperative client is nausea and vomiting.

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