a client has been taking isoniazid inh for 2 months the client complains to a nurse about numbness paresthesias and tingling in the extremities the nu
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Pharmacology HESI Quizlet

1. A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities indicate peripheral neuritis, a common side effect of isoniazid (INH). This condition can be managed by supplementing with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to minimize the symptoms.

2. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

3. A client is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The development of audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm, associated with propranolol. Beta-blockers can trigger bronchospasm, especially in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. This complication can lead to significant respiratory distress and should be addressed promptly to prevent further complications.

4. A client is receiving morphine sulfate subcutaneously for pain. Because morphine sulfate has been prescribed for this client, which nursing action would be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine sulfate suppresses the cough reflex, which can lead to the retention of secretions in the lungs. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe helps prevent pneumonia by clearing the airways of any accumulated secretions. This intervention is crucial in clients receiving morphine sulfate to maintain optimal respiratory function.

5. Before administering Methylergonovine (Methergine) to a client with postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony, the nurse checks which of the following as the important client parameter?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Methylergonovine (Methergine) acts by stimulating uterine contractions and causing vasoconstriction. As vasoconstriction can potentially impact blood pressure, it is crucial to check the client's blood pressure before administering Methylergonovine to monitor for any hypertensive effects.

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