Nursing Elites

1. A client has been taking isoniazid (INH) for 2 months. The client complains to a nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Peripheral neuritis
• C. Small blood vessel spasm
• D. Impaired peripheral circulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities indicate peripheral neuritis, a common side effect of isoniazid (INH). This condition can be managed by supplementing with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to minimize the symptoms.

2. A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2 to 4 hours after administration
• B. 4 to 12 hours after administration
• C. 16 to 18 hours after administration
• D. 18 to 24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with a peak action time of 4 to 12 hours after administration. During this period, the risk of hypoglycemic reactions is highest. It is important for the client to be aware of this timing to prevent, recognize, and manage hypoglycemia effectively.

3. A client is receiving desmopressin acetate (DDAVP), and a healthcare provider is monitoring for adverse effects. Which of the following indicates the presence of an adverse effect?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Weight loss
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drowsiness can be a sign of water intoxication or hyponatremia, which are potential adverse effects of desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). It is crucial to monitor for this symptom and promptly address it to prevent complications.

4. A client is receiving morphine sulfate subcutaneously for pain. Because morphine sulfate has been prescribed for this client, which nursing action would be included in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage fluid intake.
• B. Monitor the client's temperature.
• C. Maintain the client in a supine position.
• D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine sulfate suppresses the cough reflex, which can lead to the retention of secretions in the lungs. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe helps prevent pneumonia by clearing the airways of any accumulated secretions. This intervention is crucial in clients receiving morphine sulfate to maintain optimal respiratory function.

5. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

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