Nursing Elites

1. A child is hospitalized with a diagnosis of lead poisoning. The healthcare provider assisting in caring for the child would prepare to assist in administering which of the following medications?

• A. Activated charcoal
• B. Sodium bicarbonate
• C. Syrup of ipecac
• D. Dimercaprol (BAL in Oil)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dimercaprol (BAL in Oil) is a chelating agent indicated for lead poisoning. It works by binding to lead and facilitating its removal from the body. Activated charcoal is used for certain types of poisoning by adsorbing toxins, while sodium bicarbonate can be used to treat acidosis. Syrup of ipecac is no longer recommended for poison treatment due to potential risks.

2. A client is on nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client would indicate an understanding of the instructions?

• A. It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol.
• B. The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing.
• C. Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern.
• D. Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Aspirin or a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug can be taken 30 minutes before taking the medication to decrease flushing. Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance this side effect. The medication should be taken with meals, this will decrease gastrointestinal upset. Taking the medication with meals has no effect on the flushing. Clay-colored stools are a sign of hepatic dysfunction and should be immediately reported to the health care provider (HCP).

3. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
• B. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
• C. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.

4. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

• A. Monitoring weight loss
• B. Monitoring temperature
• C. Monitoring blood pressure
• D. Monitoring potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

5. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

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