HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. What is the measurement of the breast areola?
- A. 3.5cm
- B. 2.5cm
- C. 4.5cm
- D. 1.5cm
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 2.5 cm. The average measurement of the areola is approximately 2.5 cm. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical measurement of the breast areola.
2. What is a Carneous Mole defined as?
- A. Occurs when fluids drain from the blood mole, leaving a fresh firm mass.
- B. Occurs when the ovum dies and is expelled.
- C. Occurs when the fetus dies, and the membranes rupture.
- D. Occurs when the fetus survives after a failed abortion attempt.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A Carneous Mole is defined as when fluids drain from the blood mole, leaving a fresh firm mass. This process leads to the formation of a solid mass resembling tissue. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different concept known as a missed abortion, where the ovum dies and is expelled. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a situation related to fetal demise and membrane rupture, not specifically the formation of a Carneous Mole. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a scenario where the fetus survives after a failed abortion attempt, which is distinct from the definition of a Carneous Mole.
3. Which of the following data should not be included in the identification data of gynecological history?
- A. Parity
- B. Lost normal menstrual period
- C. EDD (Expected date of delivery)
- D. Last delivery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: EDD (Expected date of delivery). In a gynecological history, EDD is not typically included as it pertains more to obstetric history. Parity, lost normal menstrual period, and last delivery are important components of gynecological history. Parity refers to the number of times a woman has given birth to a fetus past 20 weeks' gestation. Lost normal menstrual period can provide insight into potential gynecological issues, while last delivery details the most recent childbirth experience. Therefore, EDD is the outlier in this context.
4. At what point is a fetus considered viable?
- A. 26 weeks
- B. 28 weeks
- C. 37 weeks
- D. 12 weeks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A fetus is considered viable after 37 weeks of gestation. At this stage, the fetus has a higher chance of surviving outside the womb with medical support. Choice A (26 weeks), Choice B (28 weeks), and Choice D (12 weeks) are incorrect because a fetus is not typically considered viable at those earlier gestational ages.
5. Which of the following is a common presentation in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome?
- A. Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism
- B. Amenorrhea, generalized hair loss, and weight gain
- C. Repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain
- D. Fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) commonly presents with irregular periods (oligomenorrhea), obesity, and increased hair growth (hirsutism) due to hormonal imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as amenorrhea (absence of periods), generalized hair loss, and weight gain are not typical features of PCOS. Choice C is incorrect as repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain are not characteristic of PCOS. Choice D is incorrect as fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding) are not primary symptoms seen in PCOS.
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