HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Quizlet
1. How many arteries are there in an umbilical cord?
- A. Three
- B. One
- C. Two
- D. Four
Correct answer: C
Rationale: There are two arteries in an umbilical cord. The umbilical cord contains two arteries and one vein. Artery carries blood away from the fetus, while the vein returns blood to the fetus. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the correct number of arteries in an umbilical cord.
2. The nurse is developing a program to educate parents on the importance of childhood immunizations. Which topic should be prioritized?
- A. the benefits of immunizations
- B. the potential side effects of vaccines
- C. the immunization schedule
- D. ways to comfort children during vaccinations
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: the benefits of immunizations. Emphasizing the benefits of immunizations helps parents understand the importance of vaccines in protecting their children from preventable diseases. This choice should be prioritized as it focuses on the positive outcomes of immunizations, which can motivate parents to vaccinate their children. Choices B, C, and D are not the top priority because while it's important to address potential side effects, the immunization schedule, and comforting children during vaccinations, the main focus should be on highlighting the benefits to encourage parents to make informed decisions regarding their child's immunizations.
3. A client has begun therapy with theophylline (Theo-24). The nurse tells the client to limit the intake of which of the following while taking this medication?
- A. Oranges and pineapple
- B. Coffee, cola, and chocolate
- C. Oysters, lobster, and shrimp
- D. Cottage cheese, cream cheese, and dairy creamers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Theophylline is a xanthine bronchodilator. Xanthines are found in coffee, cola, and chocolate. These foods should be limited while taking theophylline to prevent potential drug interactions or adverse effects.
4. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught pursed-lip breathing by the nurse. What is the purpose of this technique?
- A. To promote oxygenation by removing secretions.
- B. To reduce the amount of air trapped in the lungs.
- C. To increase the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled.
- D. To slow the respiratory rate and improve air exchange.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is used to increase the amount of carbon dioxide exhaled (C) in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). By doing so, it helps prevent air trapping and enhances gas exchange, ultimately improving respiratory efficiency. While removing secretions (A) and reducing air trapping (B) can be associated benefits to some extent, the primary goal of pursed-lip breathing is to optimize carbon dioxide elimination and enhance breathing mechanics. Slowing the respiratory rate (D) is not the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
- B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
- C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
- D. Nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.