HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. Amniocentesis deals with patterns of ______ in the amniotic fluid.
- A. Fingers
- B. DNA
- C. Chromosomes
- D. Proteins
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Amniocentesis is a prenatal test that involves examining chromosomes in the amniotic fluid to detect genetic abnormalities. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Chromosomes.' The other choices, such as 'Fingers,' 'DNA,' and 'Proteins,' do not accurately represent what is analyzed during an amniocentesis procedure and are unrelated to the genetic information obtained through this test.
2. At 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:
- A. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
- B. Colostrum can be expressed.
- C. Breasts become tender.
- D. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, Montgomery's tubercles become prominent. These are sebaceous glands on the areola, not the nipples. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the changes in nipples, not Montgomery's tubercles. Choice B is incorrect as colostrum production usually starts around the 16th week. Choice C is incorrect as breast tenderness is more common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes.
3. What do you call a system involving other government Ministries, Non-Governmental Organizations, Politicians, Policy makers, Senior managers, the Community, Church organizations, and other concerned bodies and users of services?
- A. Community participation
- B. Peer consultation
- C. Multi-sectoral approach
- D. Appropriate technology
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A multi-sectoral approach involves collaboration among various sectors and stakeholders to address complex issues comprehensively. In this context, it ensures that different entities work together to provide inclusive and effective services. Choice A, 'Community participation,' focuses more on the involvement of the community specifically. Choice B, 'Peer consultation,' pertains to seeking advice or input from peers within the same field. Choice D, 'Appropriate technology,' refers to the use of suitable technology for a particular situation, which is not the primary focus of the described system.
4. Which of the following is a common presentation in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome?
- A. Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism
- B. Amenorrhea, generalized hair loss, and weight gain
- C. Repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain
- D. Fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) commonly presents with irregular periods (oligomenorrhea), obesity, and increased hair growth (hirsutism) due to hormonal imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as amenorrhea (absence of periods), generalized hair loss, and weight gain are not typical features of PCOS. Choice C is incorrect as repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain are not characteristic of PCOS. Choice D is incorrect as fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding) are not primary symptoms seen in PCOS.
5. What is the triangular space lying between the vaginal and rectal canals?
- A. Pelvic floor
- B. Perineum
- C. Vestibule
- D. Perineal body
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perineum. The perineum is the triangular space located between the vaginal and rectal canals. It is a region containing various muscles, nerves, and blood vessels that support the pelvic floor. Choice A, Pelvic floor, refers to the structure supporting the organs in the pelvic cavity, not the space between the vaginal and rectal canals. Choice C, Vestibule, is the space within the labia minora containing the openings of the urethra and vagina, not the area between the vaginal and rectal canals. Choice D, Perineal body, is a fibromuscular mass in the perineum area but not the space between the vaginal and rectal canals.
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