HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. What is one goal of family planning?
- A. Ensuring that all couples and individuals have the basic right to decide freely and responsibly the number and spacing of their children
- B. Limiting couples and individuals to one or two children
- C. Forcing couples and individuals to have only one child and adopt siblings from an orphanage
- D. Providing a permanent method of family planning after having three children
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Family planning aims to ensure that all couples and individuals have the basic right to decide freely and responsibly the number and spacing of their children. This promotes reproductive autonomy and allows individuals to make informed choices about their family size. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they involve imposing restrictions or decisions on family size rather than empowering individuals to make their own choices.
2. _______ is a lytic enzyme released by the sperm.
- A. Hyaluronidase
- B. Trypsin
- C. Helicase
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyaluronidase is the correct answer. It is a lytic enzyme released by the sperm to help penetrate the egg's protective layer. Trypsin is a digestive enzyme produced in the pancreas, not released by sperm. Helicase is an enzyme involved in DNA replication, not released by sperm. 'None of the above' is incorrect as hyaluronidase fits the description provided in the question.
3. Which of the following is a common presentation in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome?
- A. Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism
- B. Amenorrhea, generalized hair loss, and weight gain
- C. Repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain
- D. Fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) commonly presents with irregular periods (oligomenorrhea), obesity, and increased hair growth (hirsutism) due to hormonal imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as amenorrhea (absence of periods), generalized hair loss, and weight gain are not typical features of PCOS. Choice C is incorrect as repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain are not characteristic of PCOS. Choice D is incorrect as fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding) are not primary symptoms seen in PCOS.
4. The placenta is developed from which part of the trophoblast?
- A. Chorionic Frondosum
- B. Anchoring Villi
- C. Chorionic Laeve
- D. Body Stalk
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chorionic Frondosum. The placenta is developed from the chorionic frondosum part of the trophoblast. This structure gives rise to the fetal part of the placenta. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Anchoring Villi are projections from the chorionic plate that attach the placenta to the uterine wall. Chorionic Laeve refers to the smooth chorion that covers the fetal surface of the placenta. The Body Stalk is a structure that connects the early embryo to the trophoblastic pole of the blastocyst.
5. Which of the following structures is responsible for the production of sperm?
- A. Epididymis
- B. Seminal vesicles
- C. Testes
- D. Prostate gland
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The testes are the male reproductive organs responsible for the production of sperm through a process called spermatogenesis. The epididymis is a structure where sperm mature and are stored temporarily. Seminal vesicles produce a significant portion of the fluid that ultimately becomes semen, but they do not produce sperm. The prostate gland contributes additional fluid to semen but does not produce sperm. Therefore, the correct answer is the testes.
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