Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Ronn is assessing a client with possible Cushing's syndrome. In a client with Cushing's syndrome, the nurse would expect to find:

• A. Hypotension.
• B. Thick, coarse skin.
• C. Deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area.
• D. Weight gain in arms and legs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Cushing's syndrome, the characteristic features include central obesity with deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area, often referred to as a 'buffalo hump.' Hypotension (Choice A) is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypertension is more common. Thick, coarse skin (Choice B) is seen in conditions like hypothyroidism, not specifically in Cushing's syndrome. Weight gain in the arms and legs (Choice D) is not a typical finding in Cushing's syndrome; rather, weight gain is more prominent in the central areas of the body.

2. A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with DM who has hyperglycemia. The priority nursing diagnosis would be:

• A. High risk for deficient fluid volume
• B. Deficient knowledge: disease process and treatment
• C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
• D. Disabled family coping: compromised

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) experiencing hyperglycemia would be 'High risk for deficient fluid volume.' Hyperglycemia can lead to osmotic diuresis, causing significant fluid loss and an increased risk of deficient fluid volume. This nursing diagnosis addresses the immediate physiological concern related to fluid balance.\n\nChoice B, 'Deficient knowledge: disease process and treatment,' focuses on the client's understanding of DM, which is important but not the priority when the client is at risk of fluid volume deficit.\n\nChoice C, 'Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements,' pertains to inadequate intake of nutrients, which is not the priority concern when fluid volume deficit poses a more immediate threat.\n\nChoice D, 'Disabled family coping: compromised,' addresses a psychosocial aspect and is not the priority over the critical physiological issue of fluid volume deficit in a client with hyperglycemia.

3. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client:

• A. Prefers to take insulin orally.
• B. Has type 2 diabetes.
• C. Has type 1 diabetes.
• D. Is pregnant and has type 2 diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oral antidiabetic agents are specifically designed for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy as the primary treatment due to the absence of endogenous insulin production. Therefore, these medications are not effective for individuals with type 1 diabetes like the male client in this scenario. Choice A is incorrect as oral antidiabetic agents are not about preference but rather about treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as being pregnant does not impact the effectiveness of oral antidiabetic agents; they are primarily indicated for type 2 diabetes.

4. What is the approximate duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH?

• A. 6-8 hours.
• B. 10-14 hours.
• C. 16-20 hours.
• D. 24-28 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '16-20 hours.' Intermediate-acting insulins like NPH typically have a duration of action of approximately 16-20 hours. This prolonged action makes them effective in managing blood glucose levels over an extended period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins. Choice A (6-8 hours) is too short, choice B (10-14 hours) is also shorter than the typical duration, and choice D (24-28 hours) is too long for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH.

5. In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

• A. Adrenal cortex
• B. Pancreas
• C. Adrenal medulla
• D. Parathyroid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by promoting sodium and water retention in the kidneys. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in the 'fight or flight' response, not in regulating blood pressure. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones involved in blood sugar regulation, not blood pressure. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the blood, not blood pressure.

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