Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following symptoms would be most concerning in a client with diabetes insipidus?

• A. Polydipsia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Nocturia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with diabetes insipidus, excessive thirst (polydipsia) and excessive urination (polyuria) are expected symptoms due to the inability to concentrate urine, leading to dilute urine production. Nocturia, waking up at night to urinate, is also common. However, hypertension is not a typical symptom of diabetes insipidus. The correct answer is D because hypertension may indicate a complication such as dehydration or electrolyte imbalances, which would require further assessment in a client with diabetes insipidus.

2. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

3. Which of the following best describes the way for a follower to 'manage up'?

• A. Provide feedback to the unit manager when requested.
• B. Assist the manager in capitalizing on their strengths and weaknesses.
• C. If a follower works with a manager displaying poor leadership skills, they should transfer to a different unit.
• D. Demonstrate respect and appreciation for the manager, even when conversing with coworkers.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best way for a follower to 'manage up' is to assist the manager in capitalizing on their strengths and weaknesses. This approach involves supporting the manager in leveraging their strengths while helping them address and improve upon their weaknesses. Choice A is not specific enough about the context of providing feedback, which may not always be the best way to manage up. Choice C suggests avoiding the situation rather than actively managing it. Choice D, while important, does not directly address the concept of managing up by helping the manager grow and excel.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking metformin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Lactic acidosis
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lactic acidosis. Metformin, a common medication for type 2 diabetes mellitus, can lead to lactic acidosis, particularly in individuals with renal impairment or other predisposing factors. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, dizziness, and slow or irregular heartbeat, is crucial when a client is taking metformin. Choice B, hypokalemia, is not a common side effect of metformin. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is contrary to the intended effect of metformin, which is to lower blood glucose levels. Choice D, weight gain, is not typically associated with metformin use; in fact, metformin may even contribute to weight loss in some individuals.

5. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.

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