a client with cushings syndrome is being assessed by the nurse which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with this condition
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HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5

1. A client with Cushing's syndrome is being assessed by the nurse. Which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct clinical manifestation consistent with Cushing's syndrome is a 'moon face.' Cushing's syndrome is characterized by fat redistribution, leading to the round and full appearance of the face known as a moon face. Choice B, weight loss, is not common in Cushing's syndrome as patients often experience weight gain. Choice C, hyperpigmentation, is more indicative of Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome. Choice D, hypotension, is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome which often presents with hypertension due to excess cortisol.

2. Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glipizide should be taken 30 minutes before meals to maximize its glucose-lowering effect.

3. A client with DM is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action when a client with DM is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step is crucial to confirm hypoglycemia before initiating any treatment. Giving the client orange juice (Choice A) is a common intervention for treating hypoglycemia, but it should not be done before confirming the blood glucose level. Administering insulin (Choice B) is not appropriate for hypoglycemia as it would further decrease the blood glucose levels. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be important, but the immediate priority is to assess the blood glucose level to guide treatment.

4. A client with type 1 DM is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should prioritize which action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering intravenous fluids is the priority in treating DKA for several reasons. DKA is characterized by severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to hyperglycemia. IV fluids help to correct dehydration, restore electrolyte balance, and decrease blood glucose levels. Administering oral glucose (Choice B) would be contraindicated in DKA as the primary issue is high blood glucose levels. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice C) is not the priority in managing DKA. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances take precedence in the management of DKA.

5. A client with type 2 DM is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction when taking metformin (Glucophage) is to take the medication with meals. Taking metformin with meals helps to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because missing a meal does not mean the medication should be avoided; the client should still take it with the next meal. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to take metformin before bedtime.

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