a client with cushings syndrome is being assessed by the nurse which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with this condition
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HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5

1. A client with Cushing's syndrome is being assessed by the nurse. Which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct clinical manifestation consistent with Cushing's syndrome is a 'moon face.' Cushing's syndrome is characterized by fat redistribution, leading to the round and full appearance of the face known as a moon face. Choice B, weight loss, is not common in Cushing's syndrome as patients often experience weight gain. Choice C, hyperpigmentation, is more indicative of Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome. Choice D, hypotension, is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome which often presents with hypertension due to excess cortisol.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is being educated on the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which of the following symptoms should the client be instructed to report immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Confusion is a critical symptom of hypoglycemia that indicates the brain is not receiving enough glucose, potentially leading to serious complications like unconsciousness or seizures. Immediate reporting of confusion is essential for prompt intervention to prevent worsening of hypoglycemia. Shakiness and sweating are early warning signs of hypoglycemia but may not always require immediate intervention. Increased thirst is a symptom commonly associated with hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia.

3. Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glipizide should be taken 30 minutes before meals to maximize its glucose-lowering effect.

4. In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by promoting sodium and water retention in the kidneys. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in the 'fight or flight' response, not in regulating blood pressure. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones involved in blood sugar regulation, not blood pressure. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the blood, not blood pressure.

5. The client with type 1 DM asks why it is necessary to rotate injection sites when managing insulin therapy. The nurse's best response is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rotating injection sites is necessary to ensure more consistent insulin absorption. This practice helps maintain stable blood glucose levels by preventing the formation of lipohypertrophy (fatty lumps under the skin) at injection sites. Choices A and B are incorrect as the primary purpose of rotating injection sites is not focused on preventing skin irritation or scar tissue buildup. While rotating injection sites may contribute to reducing pain over time, the primary benefit is the consistency in insulin absorption to support glycemic control, making choice D less relevant.

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