a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia the nurse should provide which of the following instructions
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HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. What should the nurse instruct the client to do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiences hypoglycemia, the nurse should instruct them to consume 15 grams of simple carbohydrates. This is the recommended initial treatment for hypoglycemia as it helps quickly raise blood sugar levels to alleviate symptoms and prevent complications. Administering insulin immediately (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar levels, worsening the hypoglycemia. Drinking plenty of water (Choice C) and avoiding eating until symptoms resolve (Choice D) are not appropriate actions for treating hypoglycemia as they do not address the immediate need to raise blood sugar levels.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In SIADH, there is excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is a hallmark finding in SIADH due to the imbalance between water and sodium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with SIADH. Hypercalcemia (Choice C) involves elevated calcium levels, which are not directly related to SIADH. Hypernatremia (Choice D) is the opposite of what occurs in SIADH, where sodium levels are usually diluted due to water retention.

3. A client with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that the purpose of this medication is to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps manage symptoms like tachycardia (fast heart rate) and tremors in patients with Graves' disease. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not address the underlying cause of Graves' disease, which is autoimmune in nature. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not directly reduce thyroid hormone production; it mainly targets the symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while propranolol may help with symptoms like tachycardia, it is not intended to increase energy levels.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

5. Clinical manifestations associated with a diagnosis of type 1 DM include all of the following except:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clinical manifestations of type 1 diabetes mellitus include hypoglycemia, ketonuria, and polyphagia. Hyponatremia is not typically associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus; it is more commonly linked with other conditions such as syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) or heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Hyponatremia.

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