Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. What should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Administer insulin immediately
• B. Consume 15 grams of simple carbohydrates
• C. Drink plenty of water
• D. Avoid eating until symptoms resolve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiences hypoglycemia, the nurse should instruct them to consume 15 grams of simple carbohydrates. This is the recommended initial treatment for hypoglycemia as it helps quickly raise blood sugar levels to alleviate symptoms and prevent complications. Administering insulin immediately (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar levels, worsening the hypoglycemia. Drinking plenty of water (Choice C) and avoiding eating until symptoms resolve (Choice D) are not appropriate actions for treating hypoglycemia as they do not address the immediate need to raise blood sugar levels.

2. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

3. During preoperative teaching for a female client undergoing subtotal thyroidectomy, which statement should the nurse include?

• A. The head of your bed must remain flat for 24 hours after surgery.
• B. You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after surgery.
• C. You won't be able to swallow for the first day or two.
• D. You must avoid hyperextending your neck after surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Instructing the client to avoid hyperextending the neck after thyroid surgery is crucial to prevent stress on the surgical site and reduce the risk of complications such as strain on the incision or damage to the healing tissues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Keeping the head of the bed flat for 24 hours is not necessary after a thyroidectomy; elevation of the head of the bed can actually help reduce swelling and improve comfort. B) Encouraging deep breathing and coughing after surgery is essential to prevent respiratory complications such as pneumonia, so this advice is incorrect. C) Difficulty swallowing after thyroid surgery is not a typical outcome, so this statement is inaccurate and should not be included in the preoperative teaching.

4. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

5. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:

• A. The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.
• B. It appears you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet.
• C. It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.
• D. Your insulin regimen needs to be significantly altered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.

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