Nursing Elites

1. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:

• A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
• D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action within 30 minutes and peaks 2-4 hours after administration. Given that the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., the onset of action can be expected around 2:30 p.m., and the peak effect would occur between 4-6 p.m. Choice A is incorrect as the onset and peak are too close together for regular insulin. Choice B is incorrect because the onset time is too soon after administration. Choice D is incorrect as the onset time is too delayed for regular insulin.

2. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Weight loss
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Cushing's syndrome, hyperglycemia is a common finding due to increased cortisol levels leading to insulin resistance. This can have serious implications such as diabetes mellitus and should be promptly reported for appropriate management. Hypotension (choice A) is more commonly associated with Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome. Weight gain rather than weight loss (choice C) is typically observed in clients with Cushing's syndrome. While hypokalemia (choice D) can occur in Cushing's syndrome due to excess cortisol affecting potassium levels, it is not as critical as hyperglycemia and may not be the priority for immediate reporting.

4. The client with type 2 DM is receiving dietary instructions from the nurse regarding the prescribed diabetic diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that:

• A. I need to skip meals if my blood glucose level is elevated.
• B. I need to eat a small meal or snack every 2 to 3 hours.
• C. I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.
• D. I need to eat a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.' Clients with type 2 diabetes should avoid concentrated sweets as they can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental to their health. Option A is incorrect because skipping meals can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the specific issue of avoiding concentrated sweets. Option D is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet is not typically recommended as the primary approach for managing type 2 diabetes.

5. The client with DM is being taught about the signs of hyperglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse include?

• A. Excessive thirst
• B. Sweating
• C. Shaking
• D. Hunger

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excessive thirst, also known as polydipsia, is a hallmark symptom of hyperglycemia. When blood glucose levels are high, the body tries to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, leading to increased urination and subsequent thirst. Sweating, shaking, and hunger are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Sweating can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low, shaking is a sign of hypoglycemia, and hunger is often a result of low blood sugar levels triggering the body to seek fuel.

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