HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. Narcan was administered to an adult client following a suicide attempt with an overdose of hydrocodone bitartrate (Vicodin). Within 15 minutes, the client is alert and oriented. In planning nursing care, which intervention has the highest priority at this time?
- A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- B. Obtain the client’s serum Vicodin level.
- C. Observe the client for further narcotic effects.
- D. Determine the client’s reason for attempting suicide.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Observing the client for further narcotic effects is the priority at this time. It is crucial to monitor the client closely to prevent a relapse of symptoms or potential complications from the overdose. Encouraging fluid intake is important for overall health but not the priority after an overdose. Obtaining serum Vicodin levels may be needed later but does not address the immediate need to monitor for ongoing effects. Determining the reason for the suicide attempt is vital for psychological assessment but should come after ensuring the client's physical stability.
2. An older male client with schizophrenia is found smearing feces on the bathroom walls of the chronic mental health unit where he resides. What action should the RN implement?
- A. Explain that the feces belong in the toilet.
- B. Show the client how to clean the walls.
- C. Escort the client out of the bathroom.
- D. Assist the client to clean the walls.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Escorting the client out of the bathroom is the most appropriate action to take in this situation. This helps prevent further inappropriate behavior and maintains hygiene, while avoiding reinforcement of the behavior. Option A, explaining that the feces belong in the toilet, may not be effective as the behavior is likely a manifestation of the client's condition rather than a lack of understanding. Option B, showing the client how to clean the walls, may not address the underlying issue and could potentially reinforce the behavior. Option D, assisting the client to clean the walls, may also reinforce the behavior and is not the best approach to managing the situation.
3. During an annual physical at the corporate clinic, a male employee expresses to the RN that his high-stress job is causing trouble in his personal life. He mentions getting so angry while driving to and from work that he has considered 'getting even' with other drivers. How should the RN respond?
- A. “Anger is contagious and could lead to major confrontations.”
- B. “Try not to let your anger cause you to act impulsively.”
- C. “Expressing your anger to a stranger could lead to an unsafe situation.”
- D. “It seems like there are many situations that make you feel angry.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response for the RN is to advise the employee not to act impulsively when feeling angry. This approach helps the individual learn to manage anger in a constructive manner, reducing the likelihood of potential conflicts. Choice A is incorrect because although acknowledging that anger can escalate into confrontations is valid, it does not provide immediate guidance on managing the anger. Choice C focuses on the dangers of expressing anger to strangers but does not address the core issue of managing anger. Choice D simply acknowledges the employee's feelings without providing guidance on how to address the situation effectively.
4. The RN on the evening shift receives a report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the RN implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?
- A. Hold all bedtime medications.
- B. Keep the client NPO after midnight.
- C. Implement elopement precautions.
- D. Give the client an enema at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is the appropriate intervention before ECT to prevent complications during the procedure. Withholding food and fluids reduces the risk of aspiration and helps ensure the safety of the client. Option A (Hold all bedtime medications) is incorrect because medications may need to be given as prescribed unless specified otherwise by the healthcare provider. Option C (Implement elopement precautions) is unrelated to preparing a client for ECT and focuses on preventing a client from leaving the treatment area. Option D (Give the client an enema at bedtime) is unnecessary and not a standard pre-ECT preparation, making it an incorrect choice.
5. A middle-aged female client with no previous psychiatric history is seen in the mental health clinic because her family describes her as having paranoid thoughts. On assessment, she tells the nurse, “I want to find out why these people are stalking me.” Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It sounds like this experience is frightening for you.
- B. What makes you think people are stalking you?
- C. I know you are frightened, but no one is stalking you.
- D. Do you think someone is trying to harm you?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response for the nurse to provide is option A: 'It sounds like this experience is frightening for you.' This response acknowledges the client's feelings and emotions without directly challenging the delusion of being stalked. Option B is incorrect as it directly questions the client's belief, which can lead to increased defensiveness. Option C is incorrect as it denies the client's belief without addressing the underlying fear and can cause the client to feel misunderstood. Option D is incorrect as it directly asks about harm, which may not be the primary concern of the client at this moment.
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