Nursing Elites

1. A male client with schizophrenia is being discharged from the psychiatric unit after being stabilized with antipsychotic medications. What is the most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. “You should see your psychiatrist every 6 months.”
• B. “It’s important to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed.”
• C. “Try to avoid caffeine and alcohol completely.”
• D. “You should exercise daily to maintain a healthy lifestyle.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a male client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized with antipsychotic medications is to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed. Medication adherence is crucial in managing schizophrenia, preventing relapse, and maintaining stability. While seeing the psychiatrist regularly (Choice A) is important, adherence to medication is more critical for the client's immediate well-being. Avoiding caffeine and alcohol (Choice C) may be beneficial but is not as crucial as medication adherence. Daily exercise (Choice D) is important for overall health but is not the most critical instruction for managing schizophrenia.

2. During an annual physical at the corporate clinic, a male employee expresses to the RN that his high-stress job is causing trouble in his personal life. He mentions getting so angry while driving to and from work that he has considered 'getting even' with other drivers. How should the RN respond?

• A. “Anger is contagious and could lead to major confrontations.”
• B. “Try not to let your anger cause you to act impulsively.”
• C. “Expressing your anger to a stranger could lead to an unsafe situation.”
• D. “It seems like there are many situations that make you feel angry.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response for the RN is to advise the employee not to act impulsively when feeling angry. This approach helps the individual learn to manage anger in a constructive manner, reducing the likelihood of potential conflicts. Choice A is incorrect because although acknowledging that anger can escalate into confrontations is valid, it does not provide immediate guidance on managing the anger. Choice C focuses on the dangers of expressing anger to strangers but does not address the core issue of managing anger. Choice D simply acknowledges the employee's feelings without providing guidance on how to address the situation effectively.

3. While sitting in the day room of the mental health unit, a male adolescent avoids eye contact, looks at the floor, and talks softly when interacting verbally with the RN. The two trade places, and the RN demonstrates the client's behaviors. What is the main goal of this therapeutic technique?

• A. Initiate a non-threatening conversation with the client.
• B. Dialog about the ineffectiveness of his interactions.
• C. Allow the client to identify the way he interacts.
• D. Discuss the client's feelings when he responds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main goal of the therapeutic technique described is to allow the client to identify the way he interacts. This technique helps promote self-awareness in the client by mirroring his behavior back to him, which can lead to insights about his own communication style. Option A is incorrect as the goal is not just to initiate conversation but to facilitate self-reflection. Option B is incorrect because the focus is not on discussing the ineffectiveness of the interactions but on self-awareness. Option D is incorrect as the primary aim is not to discuss the client's feelings but to help him recognize his interaction patterns.

4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is receiving a new prescription for fluoxetine (Prozac). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this medication?

• A. “I should begin feeling less anxious within a few weeks.”
• B. “The drug will help me control my compulsive behaviors.”
• C. “I will need to have a weekly blood test to check my liver function.”
• D. “I should avoid foods that contain tyramine while taking this medication.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine, an SSRI, can help manage symptoms of OCD by assisting in controlling compulsive behaviors rather than directly reducing anxiety. The improvement in symptoms usually occurs over a few weeks. Choice A is incorrect as it provides a timeframe for anxiety improvement, which is not the primary goal of fluoxetine in OCD treatment. Choice C is incorrect as routine blood tests are not typically required with fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-containing foods is more relevant for MAOIs, not SSRIs like fluoxetine.

5. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?

• A. The medication has side effects, but they are manageable.
• B. If you refuse the medication, you will be restrained.
• C. The doctor will try another medication if this one is not effective.
• D. It is important to take the medication as prescribed for it to be effective.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.

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