Nursing Elites

1. A male client with schizophrenia is being discharged from the psychiatric unit after being stabilized with antipsychotic medications. What is the most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. “You should see your psychiatrist every 6 months.”
• B. “It’s important to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed.”
• C. “Try to avoid caffeine and alcohol completely.”
• D. “You should exercise daily to maintain a healthy lifestyle.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a male client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized with antipsychotic medications is to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed. Medication adherence is crucial in managing schizophrenia, preventing relapse, and maintaining stability. While seeing the psychiatrist regularly (Choice A) is important, adherence to medication is more critical for the client's immediate well-being. Avoiding caffeine and alcohol (Choice C) may be beneficial but is not as crucial as medication adherence. Daily exercise (Choice D) is important for overall health but is not the most critical instruction for managing schizophrenia.

2. A client who is admitted to the mental health unit reports shortness of breath and dizziness. The client tells the nurse, “I feel like I’m going to die.” Which nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Mood disturbance
• B. Moderate anxiety
• C. Altered thoughts
• D. Social isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moderate anxiety. When a client presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath, dizziness, and a fear of dying, it indicates moderate anxiety. Anxiety can manifest physically with symptoms like these. Mood disturbance (choice A) refers to a change in mood, while altered thoughts (choice C) relate to cognitive changes. Social isolation (choice D) involves a lack of social interaction, which is not the primary concern in this scenario where the client is experiencing acute anxiety symptoms.

3. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

4. What assessment questions should the nurse ask when attempting to determine a teenager’s mental health resilience? Select all that apply.

• A. How did you cope when your father deployed with the Army for a year in Iraq?
• B. Who did you go to for advice while your father was away for a year in Iraq?
• C. How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?
• D. Where do you see yourself in 10 years?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The question 'How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?' is the most appropriate to assess the teenager's mental health resilience as it directly addresses their willingness to seek help and cope effectively. Choices A and B focus on coping mechanisms during a specific event, which may not reflect the teenager's overall resilience. Choice D is more related to future aspirations rather than assessing current mental health resilience.

5. A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation and urinary retention.
• B. Increased appetite and weight loss.
• C. Sedation and blurred vision.
• D. Insomnia and dry mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.

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