a male client with schizophrenia is being discharged from the psychiatric unit after being stabilized with antipsychotic medications what is the most
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HESI RN

Mental Health HESI Quizlet

1. A male client with schizophrenia is being discharged from the psychiatric unit after being stabilized with antipsychotic medications. What is the most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a male client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized with antipsychotic medications is to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed. Medication adherence is crucial in managing schizophrenia, preventing relapse, and maintaining stability. While seeing the psychiatrist regularly (Choice A) is important, adherence to medication is more critical for the client's immediate well-being. Avoiding caffeine and alcohol (Choice C) may be beneficial but is not as crucial as medication adherence. Daily exercise (Choice D) is important for overall health but is not the most critical instruction for managing schizophrenia.

2. Which factors tend to increase the difficulty of diagnosing young children who demonstrate behaviors associated with mental illness? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Level of cognitive development. The level of cognitive development is a crucial factor that can complicate the diagnosis of mental illness in young children. Young children may not have fully developed cognitive abilities to express their symptoms or understand diagnostic procedures, making it challenging for healthcare providers to assess their mental health accurately. Limited language skills (choice A) can hinder communication but are not as significant as cognitive development in diagnosing mental illness. Emotional development (choice C) is important but may not be as directly linked to the diagnostic challenges as cognitive development. Parental denial (choice D), although a potential barrier, is not a factor inherent to the child's characteristics affecting the diagnostic process.

3. An RN is providing education to the family of a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). The RN should instruct the family to report which symptom immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells. A sore throat can be an early sign of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of clozapine. The family should report this symptom immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight loss, constipation, and lightheadedness are not typically associated with the serious adverse effect of agranulocytosis related to clozapine therapy.

4. Carolina is surprised when her patient does not show for a regularly scheduled appointment. When contacted, the patient states, 'I don't need to come see you anymore. I have found a therapy app on my phone that I love.' How should Carolina respond to this news?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Carolina should respond with choice A as it shows interest and willingness to understand the patient's new approach. By asking the patient to show the app, Carolina demonstrates openness to exploring the patient's perspective and the technology they find helpful. Choice B is incorrect as it appears dismissive, failing to acknowledge the patient's autonomy in choosing an alternative therapy method. Choice C is also inappropriate as it undermines the patient's decision-making and progress achieved so far. Choice D comes off as confrontational and judgmental, which could lead to the patient feeling defensive and less likely to engage in a constructive conversation.

5. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

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