Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is completing the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of depression. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?

• A. Body mass index of 21
• B. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dL
• C. WBC count of 10,000/mm3
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dL is critically low and requires immediate notification to the healthcare provider as it indicates a potential electrolyte imbalance, which can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and other complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges or not indicative of immediate life-threatening issues. A body mass index of 21 may be considered normal for some individuals, a WBC count of 10,000/mm3 is slightly elevated but not an urgent concern, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits for an adolescent.

2. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

3. A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which behavior should the nurse prioritize in the care plan?

• A. Self-harming behavior.
• B. Difficulty with interpersonal relationships.
• C. Impulsive spending and substance abuse.
• D. Inconsistent adherence to the treatment regimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Self-harming behavior is the priority in the care plan for a client with borderline personality disorder. This behavior poses an immediate risk to the client's safety and requires prompt intervention. Difficulty with interpersonal relationships, impulsive spending, and substance abuse are also common in borderline personality disorder; however, self-harming behavior takes precedence due to its potential for severe harm. Inconsistent adherence to the treatment regimen, though important, is not as urgent as addressing the immediate safety concerns related to self-harm.

4. To evaluate the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral techniques, which client outcomes should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Relates insights into problematic relationships
• B. Demonstrates a healthy relationship with her husband
• C. Describes how the family can resolve problems
• D. Changes thought patterns related to problem-solving

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cognitive-behavioral therapy focuses on changing thought patterns by guiding the client to engage in problem-solving strategies to address the current situation. This approach helps individuals modify negative thinking patterns and develop more adaptive ways to cope with challenges. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they may be important aspects to consider in therapy, the primary focus in cognitive-behavioral therapy is on identifying and changing negative thought patterns rather than exploring relationships or family problem-solving skills.

5. A teenager who has lost 20 pounds in the last three months is admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia. The client reports irregular menses and hair loss. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Initiate caloric and nutritional therapy.
• B. Implement behavioral modification therapy.
• C. Evaluate the client for low self-esteem.
• D. Record daily weights and graph trends.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client presents with evidence of anorexia nervosa resulting from self-starvation, which is a life-threatening condition. Providing nutrition and calories is the priority intervention so that the risk of electrolyte imbalance and severe dehydration can be reduced. Behavioral modification therapy (Choice B) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the priority in this acute situation. Evaluating for low self-esteem (Choice C) may be part of the nursing assessment but does not address the immediate life-threatening issues. Recording daily weights and graphing trends (Choice D) is important for monitoring progress but does not address the critical need for nutritional therapy in this case.

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