Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is completing the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of depression. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?

• A. Body mass index of 21
• B. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dL
• C. WBC count of 10,000/mm3
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dL is critically low and requires immediate notification to the healthcare provider as it indicates a potential electrolyte imbalance, which can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and other complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges or not indicative of immediate life-threatening issues. A body mass index of 21 may be considered normal for some individuals, a WBC count of 10,000/mm3 is slightly elevated but not an urgent concern, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits for an adolescent.

2. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is struggling with flashbacks and nightmares. Which therapeutic approach should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy.
• B. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
• C. Medication management only.
• D. Relaxation training and mindfulness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) experiencing flashbacks and nightmares would benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) in the care plan. CBT is an evidence-based therapeutic approach that focuses on identifying and changing negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with PTSD symptoms. This helps the client learn coping strategies to manage distressing symptoms like flashbacks and nightmares.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not indicated for PTSD and is typically used for severe depression that has not responded to other treatments. C) Medication management alone may not address the underlying cognitive and behavioral aspects of PTSD. D) Relaxation training and mindfulness can be helpful as adjunctive therapies but may not be as effective as CBT in specifically targeting and modifying PTSD symptoms.

3. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.

4. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Decrease in manic episodes.
• B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
• C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
• D. Increased sleep duration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.

5. The nurse on the day shift receives report about a client with depression who was found on the floor in the morning. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Assist the client to get out of bed and involved in an activity.
• B. Monitor the client’s appetite and sleep patterns.
• C. Assess the client’s feelings regarding the hospital stay.
• D. Explain that staff will check on the client every 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to engage in activities is the best intervention as it can help improve mood and prevent further decline in function. This intervention can also help the client regain a sense of control and purpose. Option B, monitoring appetite and sleep patterns, is important but not the most immediate intervention needed in this situation. Option C, assessing feelings about the hospital stay, is also important but addressing the client's physical safety and well-being should take precedence. Option D, explaining the frequency of staff checks, is not as effective in addressing the client's immediate needs for engagement and support.

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