HESI RN
Quizlet Mental Health HESI
1. What should the nurse initially assess when a high school girl reveals engaging in self-induced vomiting as a weight-control measure?
- A. National percentile of weight and height.
- B. Frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors.
- C. Perceptions of family and social relationships.
- D. School grades and extracurricular activities.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors. This assessment is crucial in understanding the severity of the eating disorder and developing an appropriate treatment plan. Options A, C, and D are not the initial priority when dealing with a student engaging in harmful behaviors related to eating disorders. While weight and height, family relationships, and academic performance are important aspects to consider, the immediate focus should be on evaluating the behaviors directly linked to the reported issue.
2. The healthcare provider documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states, “I don’t need to be here†and tells the healthcare provider that she believes that the television talks to her. The healthcare provider should document these assessment findings in which section of the mental status exam?
- A. Level of concentration
- B. Insight and judgment
- C. Remote memory
- D. Mood and affect
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Insight and judgment should be documented as these findings assess the client’s awareness of their need for treatment and understanding of their condition. In this scenario, the client’s statement of not needing to be hospitalized and belief that the television talks to her reflect her insight into her situation and judgment regarding reality. The other options are incorrect: Level of concentration refers to the ability to focus and maintain attention; Remote memory evaluates the recall of past events and information; Mood and affect assess emotional state and expression, which are not directly reflected in the client's statements about her need for hospitalization and belief about the television.
3. A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?
- A. Encourage the client to continue the behavior to alleviate anxiety.
- B. Establish a routine schedule for hand washing.
- C. Gradually reduce the amount of time spent on the behavior.
- D. Ignore the behavior as much as possible.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), it's crucial to gradually reduce the compulsive behavior to help the client learn to manage anxiety in a structured manner. Encouraging the client to continue the behavior (Choice A) would reinforce the cycle of compulsions. While establishing a routine schedule (Choice B) may provide some structure, it doesn't address the core issue of excessive hand washing. Ignoring the behavior (Choice D) may lead to worsening symptoms and does not help the client in managing their OCD effectively.
4. A client with a history of bipolar disorder is stabilized on a mood stabilizer and has been prescribed lamotrigine (Lamictal). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Decrease in manic episodes.
- B. Improvement in depressive symptoms.
- C. Reduction in anxiety symptoms.
- D. Increased sleep duration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improvement in depressive symptoms. Lamotrigine is commonly used as a mood stabilizer and is particularly effective in managing depressive symptoms in bipolar disorder. While it may also help with preventing manic episodes, its primary indication is for treating depressive symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lamotrigine is not specifically indicated for reducing manic episodes, anxiety symptoms, or increasing sleep duration in bipolar disorder.
5. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?
- A. The medication has side effects, but they are manageable.
- B. If you refuse the medication, you will be restrained.
- C. The doctor will try another medication if this one is not effective.
- D. It is important to take the medication as prescribed for it to be effective.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.
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