HESI RN
Quizlet Mental Health HESI
1. What should the nurse initially assess when a high school girl reveals engaging in self-induced vomiting as a weight-control measure?
- A. National percentile of weight and height.
- B. Frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors.
- C. Perceptions of family and social relationships.
- D. School grades and extracurricular activities.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors. This assessment is crucial in understanding the severity of the eating disorder and developing an appropriate treatment plan. Options A, C, and D are not the initial priority when dealing with a student engaging in harmful behaviors related to eating disorders. While weight and height, family relationships, and academic performance are important aspects to consider, the immediate focus should be on evaluating the behaviors directly linked to the reported issue.
2. A client with alcohol use disorder is being treated in a rehabilitation facility. Which behavior indicates that the client is making progress in recovery?
- A. Attends all scheduled therapy sessions regularly.
- B. Is participating in group therapy and sharing experiences.
- C. Completes a work-study program.
- D. Has a decreased need for psychiatric medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Participation in group therapy and sharing experiences is a positive sign of progress in recovery for a client with alcohol use disorder. It fosters peer support, allows for personal insight, and encourages social interaction, which are essential aspects of the recovery process. Attending all scheduled therapy sessions regularly (Choice A) is important but may not necessarily indicate the same level of progress as active participation in group therapy. Completing a work-study program (Choice C) is not directly related to the client's recovery from alcohol use disorder. Having a decreased need for psychiatric medication (Choice D) is not necessarily a reliable indicator of progress in recovery from alcohol use disorder, as medication management is a separate aspect of treatment.
3. The client is preparing to discontinue the use of a sedative-hypnotic medication. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. “You may experience withdrawal symptoms; these are usually mild.â€
- B. “The medication will need to be gradually tapered off.â€
- C. “You should increase your caffeine intake to stay alert.â€
- D. “There should be no change in your sleep patterns during discontinuation.â€
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When discontinuing sedative-hypnotic medications, it is crucial to gradually taper them off to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because withdrawal symptoms can be severe, not always mild. Choice C is incorrect as increasing caffeine intake can exacerbate sleep disturbances. Choice D is incorrect because changes in sleep patterns are expected during discontinuation of sedative-hypnotic medications.
4. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?
- A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
- B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
- C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
- D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.
5. A client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt is being discharged from the hospital. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further follow-up?
- A. “I will take my medication as prescribed.â€
- B. “I have a plan to attend weekly therapy sessions.â€
- C. “I feel that I am completely recovered now.â€
- D. “I will avoid people who make me feel worse.â€
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt states, “I feel that I am completely recovered now,†it indicates a need for further follow-up. This statement suggests a potential lack of insight into the ongoing nature of depression and may lead to discontinuation of necessary treatment and support. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate positive and proactive attitudes towards managing depression and suicidal ideation, indicating a willingness to engage in treatment, therapy, and self-care practices.
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