Nursing Elites

1. Incomplete abortion is characterized by:

• A. Heavy bleeding.
• B. Open os.
• C. Severe cramping.
• D. Light bleeding.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Incomplete abortion is characterized by an open os, which means that the cervix is dilated, allowing for passage of tissue. This condition typically presents with heavy bleeding as parts of the products of conception are expelled. Severe cramping may also be present due to uterine contractions. Therefore, the correct characteristic of incomplete abortion is an open os (Choice B). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as heavy bleeding and severe cramping are symptoms associated with incomplete abortion, but they do not specifically define it, and light bleeding is not characteristic of incomplete abortion.

2. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) does not cause cold sores of the lips:

• A. True.
• B. False.
• C. Depends on the person.
• D. Not enough information.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) typically causes genital herpes, not cold sores on the lips. Cold sores on the lips are commonly caused by herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1). Therefore, the statement that HSV-2 causes cold sores of the lips is incorrect. Choice B, 'False,' is the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because HSV-2 does not cause cold sores on the lips. Choice C, 'Depends on the person,' is incorrect as the cause of cold sores is predominantly linked to HSV-1. Choice D, 'Not enough information,' is also incorrect as this information is well-established in medical knowledge.

3. Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:

• A. The karyotyping of the amniotic fluid
• B. Chorionic villus sampling
• C. Umbilical cord blood sampling
• D. Ultrasound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.

4. Which group of the population does the Maternal nutrition component of IRH improve?

• A. Women and adolescent girls
• B. Pregnant women alone
• C. Pregnant women and all children under five
• D. All adolescents

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Women and adolescent girls. Maternal nutrition programs typically target women of reproductive age and adolescent girls to improve their health outcomes. Option B is incorrect because maternal nutrition initiatives extend beyond just pregnant women. Option C is incorrect because the focus is not on all children under five but specifically on women and adolescent girls. Option D is incorrect because the program does not target all adolescents, but rather women and adolescent girls.

5. At 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:

• A. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
• B. Colostrum can be expressed.
• C. Breasts become tender.
• D. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, Montgomery's tubercles become prominent. These are sebaceous glands on the areola, not the nipples. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the changes in nipples, not Montgomery's tubercles. Choice B is incorrect as colostrum production usually starts around the 16th week. Choice C is incorrect as breast tenderness is more common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes.

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