Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are layers of endometrium in pregnancy EXCEPT?

• A. Decidua compacta
• B. Decidua spongiosum
• C. Decidua functionalis
• D. Decidua basalis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During pregnancy, the layers of endometrium include decidua compacta, decidua spongiosum, and decidua basalis. Decidua functionalis is the layer that sheds during menstruation and regenerates each cycle, not a layer of the endometrium during pregnancy. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Decidua compacta is the layer closest to the conceptus, decidua spongiosum is the middle layer, and decidua basalis is the layer adjacent to the myometrium.

2. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?

• A. Threatened
• B. Imminent
• C. Missed
• D. Incomplete

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.

3. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971, how many weeks of pregnancy is Medical Termination of Pregnancy considered safe up to?

• A. 8 Weeks
• B. 12 Weeks
• C. 18 Weeks
• D. 6 Weeks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971, Medical Termination of Pregnancy is considered safe up to 12 weeks of pregnancy. This timeframe is crucial to ensure the safety and well-being of the individual undergoing the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the legal provisions outlined in the MTP Act, 1971.

4. What causes the changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty?

• A. Prolactin
• B. Adrenaline
• C. Estrogen
• D. Testosterone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During puberty, boys experience physical changes such as growth of facial and body hair, deepening of the voice, and muscle development. These changes are primarily driven by the hormone testosterone. Testosterone is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Therefore, the correct answer is testosterone. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because prolactin, adrenaline, and estrogen do not play a significant role in the development of male secondary sexual characteristics during puberty.

5. Which of the following is a function of the placenta?

• A. The placenta secretes insulin.
• B. The placenta facilitates the exchange of gases and nutrients between mother and fetus.
• C. The placenta provides immunological protection to the fetus.
• D. The placenta stores fat-soluble vitamins for the fetus.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The placenta serves as a crucial organ during pregnancy, facilitating the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) and nutrients (such as glucose and amino acids) between the mother and the developing fetus. This exchange is vital for the fetus's growth and development. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The placenta does not secrete insulin; insulin is produced by the pancreas. While the placenta provides some immune support to the fetus, its main role is not immunological protection. Additionally, storing fat-soluble vitamins is not a primary function of the placenta.

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