HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, what does Stage I indicate?
- A. Involvement of a single lymph node.
- B. Involvement of two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm.
- C. Involvement of lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm.
- D. Involvement of diffuse disease of one or more extralymphatic organs.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the staging process of Hodgkin's disease, Stage I signifies the involvement of a single lymph node. This stage indicates localized disease with the disease being limited to a single lymph node or a group of adjacent nodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they describe more extensive involvement of lymph nodes, both sides of the diaphragm, or extralymphatic organs, which would correspond to higher stages in the staging system.
2. For a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) of the lower extremities who is trying to manage their condition well, which routine should the nurse evaluate as appropriate?
- A. Resting with the legs elevated above the level of the heart.
- B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day.
- C. Minimizing activity.
- D. Wearing antiembolism stockings at all times when out of bed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day is appropriate for clients with PVD as it helps stimulate collateral circulation and improve blood flow. Choice A is incorrect because while elevating the legs can help with symptoms temporarily, it is not as effective as walking for improving circulation. Choice C, minimizing activity, is not recommended as it can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms. Choice D, wearing antiembolism stockings, is not specifically indicated for PVD and may not address the underlying circulation issues.
3. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
- B. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid volume.
- C. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
- D. Keep the patient in a supine position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is crucial for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) because it helps promote venous drainage from the brain, thereby reducing ICP. Keeping the head of the bed elevated helps facilitate cerebral perfusion and can prevent a further increase in ICP. Administering diuretics (Choice B) may be considered in some cases to reduce fluid volume, but it is not the most critical intervention for immediate ICP management. Administering corticosteroids (Choice C) is not typically indicated for managing increased ICP unless there is a specific underlying condition requiring their use. Keeping the patient in a supine position (Choice D) can actually worsen ICP by impeding venous outflow from the brain, making it an incorrect choice for this scenario.
4. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?
- A. Propranolol (Inderal).
- B. Captopril (Capoten).
- C. Furosemide (Lasix).
- D. Dobutamine (Dobutrex).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent that acts to decrease heart rate and contractility. Sinus bradycardia is a common side effect of beta blockers due to their negative chronotropic effect on the heart. Captopril (Capoten) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not associated with causing bradycardia. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to electrolyte imbalances but not commonly linked to bradycardia. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate and contractility, making it an unlikely cause of bradycardia in this scenario.
5. A client presents with a fungal urinary tract infection (UTI). Which assessments should the nurse complete? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Palpate the kidneys and bladder.
- B. Assess the medical history and current medical problems.
- C. Perform a bladder scan to assess post-void residual.
- D. Inquire about recent travel to foreign countries.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client with a fungal UTI, the nurse should prioritize gathering information related to the medical history and current medical problems. Clients who are severely immunocompromised or have conditions like diabetes mellitus are more susceptible to fungal UTIs. Assessing the medical history helps identify risk factors and potential causes of the infection. While physical examinations like palpating the kidneys and bladder and performing a bladder scan may be necessary, they should follow the initial assessment of medical history. Inquiring about recent travel to foreign countries is less relevant in the context of a fungal UTI, as the focus should be on immediate medical factors predisposing the client to the infection.
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