Nursing Elites

1. Which symptoms should the nurse expect a client to exhibit who is diagnosed with a pheochromocytoma?

• A. Numbness, tingling, and cramps in the extremities.
• B. Headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations.
• C. Cyanosis, fever, and classic signs of shock.
• D. Nausea, vomiting, and muscular weakness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting non-cancerous tumor of the adrenal medulla. The classic triad of symptoms includes headache, diaphoresis (excessive sweating), and palpitations, which result from the overproduction of catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine. Numbness, tingling, and cramps in the extremities (Option A) are not characteristic of pheochromocytoma. Cyanosis, fever, and classic signs of shock (Option C) are not typical symptoms of this condition. Nausea, vomiting, and muscular weakness (Option D) are not commonly associated with pheochromocytoma.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of intravenous ceftriaxone (Rocephin) to a patient. When reviewing the patient’s chart, the nurse notes that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking amoxicillin. What is the nurse’s next action?

• A. Administer the drug and observe closely for hypersensitivity reactions.
• B. Ask the provider whether a cephalosporin from a different generation may be used.
• C. Contact the provider to report drug hypersensitivity.
• D. Notify the provider and suggest an oral cephalosporin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient has a history of a rash with amoxicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic like ceftriaxone should be administered cautiously due to a possible cross-reactivity. The nurse should still administer the drug but closely monitor the patient for any signs of hypersensitivity reactions. Asking for a different generation of cephalosporin or suggesting an oral form does not address the potential cross-reactivity issue. Contacting the provider to report drug hypersensitivity would delay care when the patient needs immediate treatment.

3. What is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?

• A. Increased blood pressure.
• B. Increased urine output.
• C. Decreased pain.
• D. Decreased premature ventricular contractions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production. This diuretic effect helps to reduce fluid volume in the body, making it an expected outcome when a client is receiving furosemide. Choice A, increased blood pressure, is incorrect because furosemide typically causes a decrease in blood pressure due to its diuretic effect. Choice C, decreased pain, and choice D, decreased premature ventricular contractions, are unrelated to the pharmacological action of furosemide.

4. The patient will begin taking doxycycline to treat an infection. When should the nurse plan to give this medication?

• A. 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal.
• B. with an antacid to minimize GI irritation.
• C. with food to improve absorption.
• D. with small sips of water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Doxycycline is a lipid-soluble tetracycline that is better absorbed when taken with milk products and food. Taking doxycycline with food helps improve its absorption. It should not be taken on an empty stomach, as this can decrease its effectiveness. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of tetracyclines, so they should not be taken together. While it is important to stay hydrated when taking medications, small sips of water are not specifically recommended for doxycycline administration.

5. An adult who was recently diagnosed with glaucoma tells the nurse, 'it feels like I am driving through a tunnel.' The client expresses great concern about going blind. Which nursing instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen
• B. Avoid frequent eye pressure measurements
• C. Wear prescription glasses
• D. Eat a diet high in carotene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen. In glaucoma, maintaining the prescribed eye drop regimen is crucial for controlling intraocular pressure, which helps in preventing vision loss. Consistent use of eye drops as directed can slow down the progression of the disease and preserve vision. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding frequent eye pressure measurements does not address the primary treatment for glaucoma. Choice C is incorrect as wearing prescription glasses may be helpful for vision correction but does not directly address the management of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because while a diet high in carotene may promote overall eye health, it is not the most important instruction for managing glaucoma.

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