Nursing Elites

1. Which symptoms should the nurse expect a client to exhibit who is diagnosed with a pheochromocytoma?

• A. Numbness, tingling, and cramps in the extremities.
• B. Headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations.
• C. Cyanosis, fever, and classic signs of shock.
• D. Nausea, vomiting, and muscular weakness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting non-cancerous tumor of the adrenal medulla. The classic triad of symptoms includes headache, diaphoresis (excessive sweating), and palpitations, which result from the overproduction of catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine. Numbness, tingling, and cramps in the extremities (Option A) are not characteristic of pheochromocytoma. Cyanosis, fever, and classic signs of shock (Option C) are not typical symptoms of this condition. Nausea, vomiting, and muscular weakness (Option D) are not commonly associated with pheochromocytoma.

2. An older client with long-term type 2 diabetes Mellitus (DM) is seen in the clinic for a routine health assessment. Which assessment would the nurse complete to determine if a patient with type 2 diabetes Mellitus (DM) is experiencing long-term complications?

• A. Signs of respiratory tract infection
• B. Sensation in feet and legs
• C. Skin condition of lower extremities
• D. Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing sensation in the feet and legs is crucial for detecting diabetic neuropathy, a common long-term complication of diabetes. While signs of respiratory tract infection, skin condition of lower extremities, and serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels are important assessments in diabetic care, they are not specific for detecting long-term complications like neuropathy.

3. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma. The nurse notes that the client’s blood pressure has decreased from 134/90 to 100/56 mm Hg and urine output is 20 mL for this past hour. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client to lay on the surgical incision.
• B. Measure the specific gravity of the client’s urine.
• C. Administer intravenous pain medications.
• D. Assess the rate and quality of the client’s pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should first fully assess the client for signs of volume depletion and shock, and then notify the provider. The radical nature of the surgery and the proximity of the surgery to the adrenal gland put the client at risk for hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is a clinical manifestation associated with both hemorrhage and adrenal insufficiency. Hypotension is particularly dangerous for the remaining kidney, which must receive adequate perfusion to function effectively. Re-positioning the client, measuring specific gravity, and administering pain medication would not provide data necessary to make an appropriate clinical decision, nor are they appropriate interventions at this time.

4. A pregnant client tells the nurse, “I am experiencing a burning pain when I urinate.” How should the nurse respond?

• A. This means labor will start soon. Prepare to go to the hospital.
• B. You probably have a urinary tract infection. Drink more cranberry juice.
• C. Make an appointment with your provider to have your infection treated.
• D. Your pelvic wall is weakening. Pelvic muscle exercises should help.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pregnant clients with a urinary tract infection require prompt and aggressive treatment because cystitis can lead to acute pyelonephritis during pregnancy. The nurse should encourage the client to make an appointment and have the infection treated. Burning pain when urinating does not indicate the start of labor or weakening of pelvic muscles. Choice A is incorrect because burning pain during urination does not signify the start of labor. Choice B is incorrect because while cranberry juice may help prevent urinary tract infections, it is not a treatment. Choice D is incorrect because burning pain when urinating is not indicative of weakening pelvic muscles.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer doses of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient who has heart failure. The patient reports having blurred vision. The nurse notes a heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 140/78 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medications and request an order for serum electrolytes.
• B. Give both medications and evaluate serum blood glucose frequently.
• C. Hold the digoxin and notify the provider.
• D. Hold the hydrochlorothiazide and notify the provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is experiencing symptoms of digoxin toxicity, such as blurred vision and bradycardia. When thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide are taken with digoxin, the patient is at risk of digoxin toxicity due to the potential for thiazides to cause hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the digoxin and notify the provider. Administering the medications without addressing the potential toxicity could worsen the patient's condition. Requesting serum electrolytes (Choice A) may be necessary but holding the digoxin takes priority. Evaluating serum blood glucose (Choice B) is not relevant to the current situation. Holding hydrochlorothiazide (Choice D) is not the best option as the primary concern is the digoxin toxicity that needs to be addressed promptly.

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