Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). What is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Provide additional oral fluid intake
• B. Measure the client's intake and output
• C. Increase the flow of the bladder irrigation
• D. Administer a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial nursing action when observing an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation post-TURP is to increase the flow of the bladder irrigation. This action helps prevent blood clots from obstructing the catheter, ensuring effective drainage and promoting client comfort. Providing additional oral fluid intake (Choice A) is important for overall hydration but may not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing. Measuring the client's intake and output (Choice B) is a routine nursing assessment that may not directly address the immediate concern of blood clots obstructing the catheter. Administering a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent (Choice D) is not the best initial action as it does not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing.

2. The client has been managing angina episodes with nitroglycerin. Which of the following indicates the drug is effective?

• A. Decreased chest pain.
• B. Increased blood pressure.
• C. Decreased blood pressure.
• D. Decreased heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption, which helps to reduce chest pain caused by angina. Therefore, a reduction in chest pain is a positive indicator of the drug's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not typically increase blood pressure or heart rate; instead, it often causes a decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation and may cause a reflex tachycardia (increased heart rate) as a compensatory response to lowered blood pressure.

3. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question should the nurse ask first?

• A. Are you drinking plenty of water?
• B. What medications are you taking?
• C. Have you tried laxatives or enemas?
• D. Has this type of thing ever happened before?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of dry mouth, constipation, and inability to void are indicative of anticholinergic side effects, which can be caused by medications like propantheline (Pro-Banthine) commonly used to treat incontinence. The first question the nurse should ask is about the client's medications to determine if they are taking anticholinergic drugs. This information is crucial as it can help differentiate between a simple side effect or a potential overdose. Asking about water intake (Choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority in this situation. Questioning about laxatives or enemas (Choice C) and past occurrences (Choice D) are not as pertinent initially as identifying the client's current medication status.

4. The healthcare provider assesses a client with cirrhosis and finds 4+ pitting edema of the feet and legs, and massive ascites. Which mechanism contributes to edema and ascites in clients with cirrhosis?

• A. Hyperaldosteronism causing increased sodium transport ion in renal tubules
• B. Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation
• C. Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to increased renal blood flow
• D. Hypoalbuminemia that results in decreased colloidal oncotic pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, hypoalbuminemia leads to decreased colloidal oncotic pressure. This reduction in oncotic pressure contributes to the development of edema in the feet and legs (pitting edema) and ascites in the abdomen. Hyperaldosteronism (choice A) would lead to sodium retention but is not the primary mechanism behind edema and ascites in cirrhosis. Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation (choice B) is not directly related to the pathophysiology of edema and ascites in cirrhosis. Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to increased renal blood flow (choice C) does not play a significant role in the development of edema and ascites in cirrhosis compared to the impact of hypoalbuminemia on colloidal oncotic pressure.

5. A client has just had a central line catheter placed that is specific for hemodialysis. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Use the catheter for the next laboratory blood draw.
• B. Monitor the central venous pressure through this line.
• C. Access the line for the next intravenous medication.
• D. Place a heparin or heparin/saline dwell after hemodialysis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse after a central line catheter placement for hemodialysis is to place a heparin or heparin/saline dwell after hemodialysis treatment. This helps prevent clot formation in the line and maintain patency for future use. Using the catheter for blood draws is not recommended as it may increase the risk of infection. Monitoring central venous pressure is not indicated with this type of catheter. Accessing the line for medications is also not recommended to prevent complications and ensure the line is solely used for hemodialysis purposes.

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