HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The nurse observes an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). What is the best initial nursing action?
- A. Provide additional oral fluid intake
- B. Measure the client's intake and output
- C. Increase the flow of the bladder irrigation
- D. Administer a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best initial nursing action when observing an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation post-TURP is to increase the flow of the bladder irrigation. This action helps prevent blood clots from obstructing the catheter, ensuring effective drainage and promoting client comfort. Providing additional oral fluid intake (Choice A) is important for overall hydration but may not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing. Measuring the client's intake and output (Choice B) is a routine nursing assessment that may not directly address the immediate concern of blood clots obstructing the catheter. Administering a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent (Choice D) is not the best initial action as it does not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing.
2. The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about risk factors associated with atherosclerosis and methods to reduce the risk. Which of the following is a risk factor that the client cannot modify?
- A. Diabetes
- B. Age
- C. Exercise level
- D. Dietary preferences
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis because it is a natural part of the aging process. While lifestyle factors such as diabetes, exercise level, and dietary preferences can be modified to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis, age cannot be altered. Therefore, age is the correct answer. Diabetes, exercise level, and dietary preferences can all be improved or managed through interventions and lifestyle changes to mitigate the risk of atherosclerosis.
3. The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1000 ml of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. What condition is the client at risk for developing?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions, which contain stomach acid, can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Excessive loss of acid results in an increase in the blood pH, leading to alkalosis. Hyperkalemia (B) is an elevated potassium level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Metabolic acidosis (C) is an acid-base imbalance characterized by low pH and bicarbonate levels, which is the opposite of what would occur with the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (D) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with the scenario described in the question.
4. A client is placed on fluid restrictions because of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which assessment finding would alert the nurse that the client’s fluid balance is stable at this time?
- A. Decreased calcium levels
- B. Increased phosphorus levels
- C. No adventitious sounds in the lungs
- D. Increased edema in the legs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The absence of adventitious sounds upon auscultation of the lungs is a key indicator that the client's fluid balance is stable. Adventitious sounds, such as crackles or wheezes, are typically heard in conditions of fluid overload, indicating that the body is retaining excess fluid. Choices A and B, decreased calcium levels and increased phosphorus levels, are common laboratory findings associated with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and are not directly related to fluid balance. Increased edema in the legs is a sign of fluid imbalance, suggesting fluid retention in the tissues, which would not indicate stable fluid balance in a client with CKD on fluid restrictions.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which finding is most important for the nurse to respond to first?
- A. Potassium 6.0 mEq/L.
- B. Daily urine output of 400 ml.
- C. Peripheral neuropathy.
- D. Uremic fetor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a critical electrolyte imbalance in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it the priority finding to address. Choice B, a daily urine output of 400 ml, may indicate decreased kidney function but does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to hyperkalemia. Peripheral neuropathy (Choice C) and uremic fetor (Choice D) are common manifestations of CKD but are not as urgent as addressing a potentially fatal electrolyte imbalance like hyperkalemia.
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