a patient will begin taking amoxicillin the nurse should instruct the patient to avoid which foods
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. When a patient starts taking amoxicillin, which foods should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acidic fruits and juices. Amoxicillin can be irritating to the stomach, so avoiding acidic fruits and juices is recommended to reduce stomach discomfort or potential interactions. Green leafy vegetables (Choice A), beef and other red meat (Choice B), and coffee, tea, and colas (Choice C) are not typically contraindicated with amoxicillin. It is important to focus on acidic foods and beverages to promote comfort and effectiveness of the medication.

2. A client is hospitalized in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) and is receiving tube feedings. The nurse is teaching the client’s spouse about the kidney-specific formulation for the enteral solution compared to standard formulas. What components should be discussed in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), clients may require tube feedings with kidney-specific formulas. These formulations are lower in sodium and potassium, which are crucial considerations due to impaired kidney function. Higher phosphorus content is not a feature of kidney-specific formulations for AKI. Therefore, options A and B (lower sodium and lower potassium) should be discussed in the teaching plan. Option C, higher phosphorus, is incorrect as kidney-specific formulas are not intended to be higher in phosphorus content for AKI patients.

3. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

4. The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported by the client supports this diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain.' This symptom is a classic presentation of peptic ulcer disease. Antacids (choice A) may provide relief but do not confirm the diagnosis. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea (choice B) are more suggestive of other conditions like irritable bowel syndrome. Weight loss and appetite changes (choice D) are non-specific and could be related to various health issues.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving erythropoietin therapy. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertension. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to an increase in blood pressure, making hypertension a common side effect that the nurse should closely monitor. Hypotension (choice A) is not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to erythropoietin therapy in clients with chronic renal failure, making them incorrect choices.

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