HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?
- A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
- B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
- C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
- D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.
2. For a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) of the lower extremities who is trying to manage their condition well, which routine should the nurse evaluate as appropriate?
- A. Resting with the legs elevated above the level of the heart.
- B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day.
- C. Minimizing activity.
- D. Wearing antiembolism stockings at all times when out of bed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day is appropriate for clients with PVD as it helps stimulate collateral circulation and improve blood flow. Choice A is incorrect because while elevating the legs can help with symptoms temporarily, it is not as effective as walking for improving circulation. Choice C, minimizing activity, is not recommended as it can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms. Choice D, wearing antiembolism stockings, is not specifically indicated for PVD and may not address the underlying circulation issues.
3. A client is hospitalized in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) and is receiving tube feedings. The nurse is teaching the client’s spouse about the kidney-specific formulation for the enteral solution compared to standard formulas. What components should be discussed in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Lower sodium
- B. Lower potassium
- C. Higher phosphorus
- D. A & B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), clients may require tube feedings with kidney-specific formulas. These formulations are lower in sodium and potassium, which are crucial considerations due to impaired kidney function. Higher phosphorus content is not a feature of kidney-specific formulations for AKI. Therefore, options A and B (lower sodium and lower potassium) should be discussed in the teaching plan. Option C, higher phosphorus, is incorrect as kidney-specific formulas are not intended to be higher in phosphorus content for AKI patients.
4. When providing care for an unconscious client who has seizures, which nursing intervention is most essential?
- A. Ensure oral suction is available.
- B. Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
- C. Provide frequent mouth care.
- D. Keep the room at a comfortable temperature.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During seizures in an unconscious client, ensuring oral suction is available is crucial to managing secretions and preventing aspiration. This intervention helps maintain a clear airway and reduce the risk of complications. Maintaining the client in a semi-Fowler's position (Choice B) may be important for airway management but is not as critical as having oral suction ready. Providing frequent mouth care (Choice C) and keeping the room at a comfortable temperature (Choice D) are important aspects of overall care but are not as urgently needed as ensuring oral suction for managing secretions during seizures.
5. What is the primary action of insulin in the body?
- A. To lower blood pressure.
- B. To promote the absorption of glucose into cells.
- C. To increase blood glucose levels.
- D. To decrease blood glucose levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To promote the absorption of glucose into cells. Insulin facilitates the uptake of glucose by cells, thereby decreasing blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect as insulin does not directly affect blood pressure. Choice C is inaccurate as insulin works to lower, not increase, blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because insulin's primary role is to lower, not increase, blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake into cells.
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