Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home from the hospital to take amoxicillin (Amoxil) twice daily for 10 days. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

• A. Discontinue the antibiotic when your temperature returns to normal and your symptoms have improved.
• B. If diarrhea occurs, stop taking the drug immediately and contact your provider.
• C. Stop taking the drug and notify your provider if you develop a rash while taking this drug.
• D. You may save any unused antibiotic to use if your symptoms recur.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients who develop signs of allergy, such as rash, should notify their provider before continuing medication therapy. Patients should be counseled to continue taking their antibiotics until completion of the prescribed regimen even when they feel well. Diarrhea is an adverse effect but does not warrant cessation of the drug. Before deciding to stop taking a medication due to a side effect, encourage the patient to contact the provider first. Patients should discard any unused antibiotic.

2. A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Document findings and continue to monitor the client.
• B. Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test.
• C. Review the client’s recent dietary selections.
• D. Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL, which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor is not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client’s dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality.

3. What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?

• A. Maintaining oxygen saturation above 92%
• B. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds
• C. Maintaining a balanced intake and output
• D. Absence of shortness of breath at rest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ideal goal of treatment for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema is to maintain a balanced intake and output. This helps in achieving optimal fluid balance, enabling the heart to eject blood effectively without increasing pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. While maintaining oxygen saturation above 92% is important for adequate tissue oxygenation, the primary focus in this scenario is fluid balance. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds is important to assess for pulmonary status, but it is not the primary goal to prevent pulmonary edema specifically. Similarly, absence of shortness of breath at rest is a relevant goal, but the emphasis in CKD management is on fluid balance to prevent pulmonary complications.

4. The client is preparing a morning dose of insulin, which includes 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse is verifying the client's preparation accuracy. What should the syringe read for the correct dose?

• A. 22 units.
• B. 10 units.
• C. 32 units.
• D. 42 units.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 32 units. To determine the correct dose, the nurse needs to add the 10 units of regular insulin to the 22 units of NPH, resulting in a total of 32 units. Therefore, the syringe should read 32 units. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate total dose required for the morning insulin administration.

5. A patient presents with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which of the following diagnostic tests is the priority?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Chest X-ray
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient presenting with severe chest pain radiating to the left arm, the priority diagnostic test is an Electrocardiogram (ECG) to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG can quickly identify changes indicative of ischemia or infarction, guiding prompt management. A Complete Blood Count (CBC) may provide some information but is not the primary test for evaluating chest pain related to myocardial infarction. A Chest X-ray can be useful in assessing lung pathologies or certain cardiac conditions; however, it does not provide immediate information on myocardial infarction, making it a secondary option in this scenario. Serum electrolytes may become important in later stages but do not offer immediate insights into myocardial infarction. Therefore, they are a lower priority compared to obtaining an ECG for timely diagnosis and intervention.

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