Nursing Elites

1. In preparing assignments for the shift, which client is best for the charge nurse to assign to a practical nurse (PN)?

• A. An older client who fell yesterday and is now complaining of diplopia.
• B. An adult newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and high cholesterol.
• C. A client with pancreatic cancer who is experiencing intractable pain.
• D. An older client post-stroke who is aphasic with right-sided hemiplegia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best client for the charge nurse to assign to a practical nurse (PN) is an older client post-stroke who is aphasic with right-sided hemiplegia. This client is stable and suitable for care by a PN under supervision. Choices A, B, and C present clients with more complex and acute conditions that would require a higher level of nursing expertise and intervention.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. In clients receiving erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of developing hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin therapy can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increase in potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while hemoglobin levels are relevant for assessing the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, monitoring potassium levels is more critical due to the potential adverse effects of elevated potassium levels in CKD patients on this therapy.

3. When caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) who had a craniotomy for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse assesses the client using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) every two hours. For the past 8 hours, the client's GCS score has been 14. What does this GCS finding indicate about the client?

• A. Neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP.
• B. At risk for neurological deterioration.
• C. Experiencing mild cognitive impairment.
• D. In need of immediate medical intervention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A GCS score of 14 indicates that the client is neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP. It suggests that the client's neurological status is relatively intact, with only mild impairment, if any. This finding reassures the nurse that there are currently no signs of deterioration or immediate need for intervention. Choice B is incorrect because a GCS score of 14 does not necessarily indicate immediate risk for neurological deterioration. Choice C is incorrect as mild cognitive impairment is not typically inferred from a GCS score of 14. Choice D is incorrect as immediate medical intervention is not warranted based on a GCS score of 14 without other concerning symptoms.

4. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• B. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute
• C. Fever of 100.4°F
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fever of 100.4°F is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it may indicate an underlying infection, which can lead to serious complications in this population. Elevated body temperature can be a sign of sepsis, which requires immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. Reporting this finding promptly allows for timely intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate threat to the client's well-being in the context of preparing for hemodialysis.

5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Echocardiogram. An echocardiogram should be performed first to assess ventricular function and evaluate the cause of shortness of breath and crackles in a client with heart failure. An echocardiogram provides valuable information about the heart's structure and function, helping to identify potential issues related to heart failure. Chest X-ray (Choice A) may be done to assess for changes in heart size or fluid in the lungs but does not directly assess heart function. Arterial blood gases (Choice B) may provide information about oxygenation but do not directly evaluate heart function. An electrocardiogram (Choice D) assesses the heart's electrical activity but does not provide detailed information about ventricular function, which is crucial in heart failure management.

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