Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent's mother calls the clinic because the teen is having recurrent vomiting and has been combative in the last 2 days. The mother states that the teen takes vitamins, calcium, and magnesium supplements along with aspirin. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Advise the mother to withhold all medications by mouth.
• B. Instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room.
• C. Recommend that the teen withhold food and fluids for 2 hours.
• D. Suggest that the adolescent breathe slowly and deeply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing intervention is to instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room. The symptoms of recurrent vomiting, combative behavior, and the medications (vitamins, calcium, magnesium supplements, and aspirin) taken by the teen suggest a possible overdose or serious adverse reaction. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation is crucial to assess and manage any potential toxicity or adverse effects. Advising to withhold all medications by mouth (Choice A) may delay necessary treatment. Recommending withholding food and fluids for 2 hours (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Suggesting slow and deep breathing (Choice D) is not appropriate in this urgent situation requiring immediate medical attention.

2. A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Severe abdominal distention
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Decreased bowel sounds
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Severe abdominal distention is a sign of worsening pancreatitis and can indicate complications like bowel obstruction or fluid accumulation. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration. Decreased urine output (Choice B) could indicate renal impairment, decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) are expected in pancreatitis due to paralytic ileus, and an increased heart rate (Choice D) is a common response to pain or stress in acute pancreatitis but may not require immediate intervention unless it is extremely high or persistent.

3. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse's station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?

• A. Ineffective coping related to denial.
• B. Risk for impaired cardiac function.
• C. Noncompliance related to lack of knowledge.
• D. Anxiety related to hospitalization.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective coping related to denial. The client's desire to leave the hospital shortly after a myocardial infarction despite the severity of the condition indicates denial and ineffective coping. This behavior could lead to complications as the client may not adequately address his health needs. Choice B, Risk for impaired cardiac function, is not the most appropriate nursing problem in this scenario as the client's behavior is more indicative of psychological coping issues rather than a direct physiological risk at this moment. Choice C, Noncompliance related to lack of knowledge, does not align with the client's behavior of wanting to leave the hospital. Choice D, Anxiety related to hospitalization, may not be the best option as the client's behavior is more suggestive of denial rather than anxiety about being hospitalized.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Jugular venous distention
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning finding in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates worsening pulmonary congestion and impaired gas exchange. This symptom suggests that the client is experiencing significant difficulty in breathing and inadequate oxygenation, requiring immediate intervention. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) is often seen in right-sided heart failure, while peripheral edema (Choice B) and crackles in the lungs (Choice D) are common manifestations of left-sided heart failure but are not as acutely concerning as severe shortness of breath, which can rapidly progress to respiratory distress if not addressed promptly.

5. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that indicates a potential airway obstruction, which can be caused by an allergic reaction. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to ensure the client's airway is patent and to prevent respiratory distress. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are potential side effects of ceftriaxone sodium but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to airway obstruction indicated by stridor.

Similar Questions